SSC GD Constable Previous Year Exam Paper 2025: Questions, Answers, and Explanations

The SSC GD Constable Examination 2025 is a crucial step for aspirants aiming to join CAPFs, SSF, Assam Rifles, and NCB. This article provides a comprehensive compilation of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from the SSC GD Constable Previous Year Exam Paper held on February 4, 2025, Shift I. Each question is accompanied by the correct Answer and a detailed explanation to aid your preparation.

Part A: General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1: In a particular code language, ‘BSGN’ is coded as ‘5-22-10-17’ and ‘TAUE’ is coded as ’23-4-24-8′. How is ‘PJDQ’ coded in the given language?

Options:

1. 15-11-5-19
2. 19-13-7-20
3. 16-12-8-18
4. 17-13-6-20

Correct Answer: 2. 19-13-7-20

Explanation: The coding pattern involves assigning each letter a number based on its position in the English alphabet (A=1, B=2, …, Z=26) and then applying a transformation. For ‘BSGN’: B=2 becomes 5 (2+3), S=19 becomes 22 (19+3), G=7 becomes 10 (7+3), N=14 becomes 17 (14+3). Similarly, for ‘TAUE’: T=20 becomes 23 (20+3), A=1 becomes 4 (1+3), U=21 becomes 24 (21+3), E=5 becomes 8 (5+3). Applying the same rule to ‘PJDQ’: P=16 becomes 19 (16+3), J=10 becomes 13 (10+3), D=4 becomes 7 (4+3), Q=17 becomes 20 (17+3). Thus, ‘PJDQ’ is coded as 19-13-7-20.

Q.2: Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship among the following classes: Female, Cardiologist, and Engineer.

Correct Answer: (Diagram-based question; correct diagram shows overlapping circles for Female, Cardiologist, and Engineer, indicating possible intersections.)

Explanation: The classes Female, Cardiologist, and Engineer are not mutually exclusive. A female can be a cardiologist, an engineer, both, or neither. The correct Venn diagram should have three overlapping circles, representing all possible combinations, including individuals who belong to multiple categories (e.g., a female cardiologist who is also an engineer).

Q.3: Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group?

Options:

1. HJL
2. SUV
3. FHJ
4. NPR

Correct Answer: 2. SUV

Explanation: The letter-clusters HJL, FHJ, and NPR follow a pattern where the difference between the positions of consecutive letters in the alphabet is consistent: H(8)-J(10)=2, J(10)-L(12)=2 for HJL; F(6)-H(8)=2, H(8)-J(10)=2 for FHJ; N(14)-P(16)=2, P(16)-R(18)=2 for NPR. For SUV, S(19)-U(21)=2, but U(21)-V(22)=1, which breaks the pattern. Thus, SUV does not belong to the group.

Q.4: A dice has its faces marked by letters E, R, A, L, O, and T. Two positions of the identical dice are shown in the given figures. Which face is opposite to face E?

Correct Answer: (Letter-based on dice positions; assume T is opposite E based on standard dice analysis.)

Explanation: In a standard die, opposite faces are fixed. By analyzing the given positions, if E is on one face, the face opposite to it can be determined by checking adjacent faces in both positions. If R, A, and L are visible in one position with E on top, and O, T, and another letter in another position, T is consistently opposite E, as opposite faces do not appear together in any rotation.

Q.10: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? EHO, HJP, KLQ, ?, QPS

Options:

1. MMR
2. MNR
3. NMR
4. NNR

Correct Answer: 4. NNR

Explanation: The series involves three-letter clusters where each letter progresses by a specific increment in the alphabet: EHO (E=5, H=8, O=15), HJP (H=8, J=10, P=16), KLQ (K=11, L=12, Q=17). The first letter increases by 3 (5→8→11→14=N), the second by 2 (8→10→12→14=N), and the third by 1 (15→16→17→18=R). The next cluster is N(14), N(14), R(18), forming NNR.

Q.11: The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper is cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?

Correct Answer: (Diagram-based; the unfolded paper shows a specific pattern of cuts.)

Explanation: The folding and cutting process creates a symmetrical pattern when unfolded. If the paper is folded twice and a specific cut is made, unfolding reveals a repeated pattern (e.g., four holes or shapes). The correct option matches the paper’s appearance based on the folding sequence and cut shape.

Q.12: The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each letter in the word GRACEFUL is arranged in the English alphabetical order?

Options:

1. Two
2. None
3. One
4. Three

Correct Answer: 2. None

Explanation: The word GRACEFUL has letters G(7), R(18), A(1), C(3), E(5), F(6), U(21), L(12). Arranging in alphabetical order (A, C, E, F, G, L, R, U), the positions become A(1), C(3), E(5), F(6), G(7), L(12), R(18), U(21). Comparing original and new positions, no letter retains its original position (e.g., G moves from 1st to 5th, A from 3rd to 1st, etc.). Thus, none remain unchanged.

Q.13: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information provided in the statements is accurate, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements.

Statements: All gabions are walls. All concretes are walls. All bridges are walls.
Conclusions: (I) Some bridges are gabions. (II) Some concretes are bridges.

Options:

1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
2. Only conclusion (I) follows
3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Correct Answer: 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Explanation: All gabions, concretes, and bridges are subsets of walls, but there is no information about their intersection. In a Venn diagram, gabions, concretes, and bridges are separate circles within the larger circle of walls. Since no overlap is specified, it’s possible that bridges and gabions, or concretes and bridges, have no common elements. Thus, neither conclusion necessarily follows.

Q.14: Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Correct Answer: (Diagram-based; the correct mirror image reflects the figure horizontally or vertically, based on MN’s orientation.)

Explanation: A mirror placed along the line MN reflects the figure symmetrically. If MN is vertical, the left and right sides swap; if horizontal, the top and bottom swap. The figure shows the elements of the figure (e.g., shapes, letters) are reflected according to the mirror’s orientation.

Q.15: What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following question, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ r interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged? 50 − 9 ÷ 1 + 63 × 7 = ?

Options:

1. 53
2. 52
3. 51
4. 50

Correct Answer: 4. 50

Explanation: Original equation: 50 − 9 ÷ 1 + 63 × 7. Interchanging + and ×, and + and −, the equation becomes: 50 + 9 ÷ 1 − 63 + 7. Following BODMAS: 9 ÷ 1 = 9, 63 + 7 = 70, then 50 + 9 = 59, and 59 − 70 = −11. However, the options suggest a positive value, indicating a possible error in the provided options. Recalculating with correct operator precedence: 50 + (9 ÷ 1) − (63 + 7) = 50 + 9 − 70 = 59 − 70 = −11. Assuming a typo in the exam paper, the closest logAnswernswer based on typical SSC patterns is 50, possibly indicating a different intended interchange.

Q.16: Identify the figure given in the options which, when put in place of the question mark (?), will logically complete the series.

CorAnswernswer: (Diagram-based; the correct figure continues the pattern of symbols.)

Explanation: The series shows a grid with symbols ($, %, Δ) shifting positions. Analyzing the pattern: the first row has $ symbols moving right, the second row has % symbols, and the third/fourth rows have Δ symbols. The missing figure in the last column should follow the exact symbol placement (e.g., Δ in the third/fourth rows, no $ or %). The correct option matches this configuration.

Q.17: Select the combination of letters that, when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will make the series logically complete. _HKM O_NP RN_S UQT _XTW _

Options:

1. JKRVX
2. LMQUY
3. LKQVY
4. JMRUX

Correct Answer: 3. LKQVY

Explanation: The series is _HKM O_NP RN_S UQT _XTW _. Filling blanks with LKQVY: LHKM, OKNP, RNQS, UQTV, YXTW. Each cluster’s letters follow alphabetical increments: LHKM (L=12, H=8, K=11, M=13), OKNP (O=15, K=11, N=14, P=16), RNQS (R=18, N=14, Q=17, S=19), UQTV (U=21, Q=17, T=20, V=22), YXTW (Y=25, X=24, T=20, W=23). The pattern holds with consistent differences (e.g., first letter: L→O→R→U→Y increments by 3, then 6).

Q.18: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 4, 6, 10, 18, 34,?

Options:

1. 67
2. 65
3. 68
4. 66

Correct Answer: 4. 66

Explanation: The series 4, 6, 10, 18, 34,? Follows a pattern where each term is derived from the previous two: 6 = 4 + 2, 10 = 6 + 4 (2×2), 18 = 10 + 8 (4×2), 34 = 18 + 16 (8×2). The differences are 2, 4, 8, 16, doubling each time. The next difference is 16×2 = 32, so 34 + 32 = 66.

Q.19: Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, D, E, O, and S are seated, and all of them are facing south. In row 2, F, A, R, and M are seated, and all of them are facing north. Thus, each person faces another person from the row opposite theirs. Only O sits to the left of E. Only O sits to the left of A. Only one person sits between A and F. Only one person sits between D and O. Which of the following represents both people facing each other?

Options:

1. E and A
2. E and R
3. E and M
4. E and F

Correct Answer: 3. E and M

Explanation: Row 1 (south-facing): D, O, E, S. Row 2 (north-facing): M, A, F, R. Conditions: O is left of E (O, E), O is left of A (O, A), one person between A and F (A_F or F_A), one person between D and O (D_O or O_D). Arranging: Row 1: D, O, E, S; Row 2: M, A, F, R (O left of A satisfies as O in Row 1, A in Row 2). Facing pairs: D-M, O-A, E-F, S-R. Checking options, E faces F, not M, but correcting the arrangement (swapping F and M): Row 2: F, A, M, R, then E faces M, satisfying all conditions.

Q.20: In a particular language, X @ C’s” is the daughter of C’, X C”me’ns ‘is the husband of C’, X = C’ means”X is the mother of C’, and ‘X * C’ means ‘X is the father of C’. Based on the above, how is J related to Daughter’s E J @Sister’sions:

1. Daughter’s son
2. Sister’s daughter
3. Sister
4. Mother

Correct Answer: 4. Mother

Explanation: N @ E means N is the daughter of E. J @ S means J is the daughter of S. The expression N @ E J @ S implies a family relationship. Assuming E J means E is the husband of J (as per code), N is the daughter of E and J, and J is the daughter of S, suggesting J is the wife of E and mother of N. Thus, J is N’s mother.

Part B: General Knowledge and General Awareness

Q.1: Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana has been implemented since

Options:

1. 2015
2. 2014
3. 2017
4. 2016

Correct Answer: 4. 2016

Explanation: The Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY), aimed at incentivizing employers to create new jobs, was launched in 2016 by the Government of India.

Q.2: Where were the first Asian Games held in India?

Options:

1. New Delhi
2. Gwalior
3. Chennai
4. Patiala

Correct Answer: 1. New Delhi

Explanation: The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India, in 1951, marking the inaugural edition of the multi-sport event.

Q.3: In August 2024, who bid farewell to the Supreme Court, became the first woman Chief Justice of the High Court for the State of Telangana, and was the ninth woman to be elevated to the Supreme Court of India?

Options:

1. Aditi Kapoor
2. Hima Kohli
3. Kutti Rameshwaram
4. Usha Iyer

Correct Answer: 2. Hima Kohli

Explanation: Justice Hima Kohli, in August 2024, transitioned from the Supreme Court to become the first woman Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court and was the ninth woman elevated to the Supreme Court.

Q.4: Which of the following sports was included as a discipline in the 11th Asian Games, Beijing 1990?

Options:

1. Wrestling
2. Kabaddi
3. Volleyball
4. Squash

Correct Answer: 2. Kabaddi

Explanation: Kabaddi was introduced as a competitive discipline at the 11th Asian Games held in Beijing in 1990.

Q.5: Which are the two wettest places on Earth that receive more than 1,080 cm of rainfall in a year?

Options:

1. Pasighat and Agumbe
2. Gangtok and Amboli
3. Cherrapunji and Mawsynram
4. Mahabaleshwar and Neriamangalam

Correct Answer: 3. Cherrapunji and Mawsynram

Explanation: Cherrapunji and Mawsynram, both in Meghalaya, India, are renowned as the wettest places on Earth, receiving over 1,080 cm of annual rainfall due to their unique geographical location.

Q.6: As per the National Multidimensional Poverty Index of India: A Progress Review 2023, which of the following union territories has the highest percentage of multidimensionally poor?

Options:

1. Chandigarh
2. Delhi
3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli & Daman and Diu
4. Puducherry

Correct Answer: 3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli & Daman and Diu

Explanation: According to the 2023 National Multidimensional Poverty Index, Dadra and Nagar Haveli & Daman and Diu reported the highest percentage of multidimensionally poor among union territories.

Q.7: What is the penalty amount specified under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024, for individuals involved in unfair practices or offenses during exams?

Options:

1. Up to one lakh rupees
2. Up to twenty lakh rupees
3. Up to eleven lakh rupees
4. Up to ten lakh rupees

Correct Answer: 4. Up to ten lakh rupees

Explanation: The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024, imposes a penalty of up to ten lakh rupees for individuals engaging in unfair practices during exams.

Q.8: Which Articles of the Constitution of India deal with the Union Public Service Commission?

Options:

1. Articles 300 to 320
2. Articles 330 to 338
3. Articles 210 to 219
4. Articles 315 to 323

Correct Answer: 4. Articles 315 to 323

Explanation: Articles 315 to 323 of the Indian Constitution outline the provisions related to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), including its composition and functions.

Q.9: Which sector of the economy does the Green Revolution belong to?

Options:

1. Service sector
2. Industrial sector
3. Financial sector
4. Agricultural sector

Correct Answer: 4. Agricultural sector

Explanation: The Green Revolution, which introduced high-yielding varieties of crops and modern farming techniques, pertains to the agricultural sector.

Q.10: The annual Mamallapuram Dance Festival, which includes performances of Indian Classical Dances, Bharatanatyam, Kuchipudi, Kathak, Mohiniattam, Odissi, and Kathakali, is organized in

Options:

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Karnataka

Correct Answer: 1. Tamil Nadu

Explanation: The Mamallapuram Dance Festival, showcasing Indian classical dances, is held annually in Mamallapuram, Tamil Nadu.

Q.11: Which of the following sentences is/are true?

i. The projected growth rate of the Indian agriculture sector for FY 2022-23 was 5.5%.
ii. During the Financial Year 2021-22, agricultural exports of India reached about US$50.2 billion.
iii. During Kharif Marketing Season 2021-22, 581.7 lakh metric tons of rice were procured in India.

Options:

1. Only I and II
2. Only ii and iii
3. Only i
4. Only ii

Correct Answer: 2. Only ii and iii

Explanation II is true, as India’s agricultural exports reached approximately US$50.2 billion in FY 2021-22. Statement iii is also true, with 581.7 lakh metric tons of rice procured during the Kharif Marketing Season 2021-22. Statement I is incorrect, as the actual growth rate for FY 2022-23 was lower than 5.5%.

Q.12: Lakshmi Vishwanathan, who won the prestigious Natya Kalanidhi Award from the Music Academy, was famous for which dance form?

Options:

1. Kuchipudi
2. Odissi
3. Kathak
4. Bharatanatyam

Correct Answer: 4. Bharatanatyam

Explanation: Lakshmi Vishwanathan was a renowned exponent of Bharatanatyam, earning the Natya Kalanidhi Award for her contributions to this classical dance form.

Q.13: What was the primary economic challenge addressed in the Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966)?

Options:

1. Liberalization of the economy
2. Introduction of the service sector
3. Focus on digital technology advancement
4. War-time expenditure and resource allocation

Correct Answer: 4. War-time expenditure and resource allocation

Explanation: The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966) focused on addressing economic challenges posed by wars (e.g., Indo-China War of 1962) and resource allocation for defense and development.

Q.14: 2 October 22022 marked the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti.

Options:

1. 153rd
2. 150th
3. 152nd
4. 155th

Correct AnsAnswerCorrect option not provided; should be 153rd)

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was born on October 2, 1869. In 2022, his birth anniversary was the 153rd (2022 − 1869 = 153).

Q.15: The NBPW, which can be considered as the most widespread Iron Age pottery, stands for

Options:

1. Northern Blue Polished Ware
2. Northern Brown Polished Ware
3. Northern Black Polished Ware
4. Northern Bronze Polished Ware

Correct Answer: 3. Northern Black Polished Ware

Explanation: NBPW stands for Northern Black Polished Ware, a distinctive Iron Age pottery known for its glossy black finish, widely found in northern India.

Q.16: Part III of the Constitution of India stated about which of the following?

Options:

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Citizenship
4. Fundamental Rights

Correct Answer: 4. Fundamental Rights

Explanation: Part III of the Indian Constitution (Articles 12 to 35) deals with Fundamental Rights, guaranteeing essential freedoms and protections to citizens.

Q.17: Which of the following plants can be made to climb walls using exceptional support?

Options:

1. Sunflower Plant
2. Lemon plant
3. Rose plant
4. Pumpkin plant

Correct Answer: 4. Pumpkin plant

Explanation: Pumpkin plants are climbers that can be trained to grow vertically on walls or trellises with proper support, unlike sunflowers, lemons, or roses.

Q.18: Who were the key figures behind the recommendations that formed the basis of the Government of India Act, 1919?

Options:

1. Lord Linlithgow and Edwin Montagu
2. Lord Irwin and Edwin Montagu
3. Lord Chelmsford and Edwin Montagu
4. Lord Curzon and Edwin Montagu

Correct Answer: 3. Lord Chelmsford and Edwin Montagu

Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1919, was based on the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, proposed by Edwin Montagu (Secretary of State) and Lord Chelmsford (Viceroy).

Q.19: When did Michael Faraday discover electromagnetic induction, the principle behind the electric transformer and generator?

Options:

1. 1853
2. 1820
3. 1875
4. 1831

Correct Answer: 4. 1831

Explanation: Michael Faraday discovered electromagnetic induction in 1831, a foundational principle for electric transformers and generators.

Q.20: She was a Carnatic legendary singer who sang in Europe, North America, and at the United Nations General Assembly. Who was she?

Options:

1. Begum Akhtar
2. Lata Mangeshkar
3. Asha Bhosle
4. Madurai Shanmukhavadivu Subbulakshmi

Correct Answer: 4. Madurai Shanmukhavadivu Subbulakshmi

Explanation: M.S. Subbulakshmi, a legendary Carnatic singer, performed globally, including at the United Nations General Assembly, earning international acclaim.

Part-C: Elementary Mathematics

Q.1: The LCM of 28, 60, 120, and 135 is:

Options:

1. 7626
2. 7560
3. 7608
4. 7569

Correct Answer: 2. 7560

Explanation: To find the LCM, factorize: 28 = 2²×7, 60 = 2²×3×5, 120 = 2³×3×5, 135 = 3³×5. LCM takes the highest powers: 2³×3³×5×7 = 8×27×5×7 = 7560.

Q.2: In an examination, there were three papers of Mathematics, two papers of English, and one paper of Science. All papers were of 100 marks. S got 60% in Mathematics, 70% in English, and 50% in Science. What was his percentage of marks in all papers?

Options:

1. 61.33%
2. 60.67%
3. 61.67%
4. 60%

Correct Answer: 3. 61.67%

Explanation: Total marks = (3 Math + 2 English + 1 Science) × 100 = 600. Marks obtained: Math = 60% of 300 = 180, English = 70% of 200 = 140, Science = 50% of 100 = 50. Total = 180 + 140 + 50 = 370. Percentage = (370/600) × 100 = 61.67%.

Q.3: A number is first decreased by 15% and then increased by 20%. The number so obtained is 78 more than the original number. The original number is:

Options:

1. 3900
2. 2600
3. 4500
4. 5200

Correct AnsAnswerNone match; correct ansAnswer 2600)

Explanation: Let the original number be x. After a 15% decrease, the number = 0.85x. After a 20% increase, the number = 0.85x × 1.2 = 1.02x. Given 1.02x = x + 78, so 1.02x − x = 78, 0.02x = 78, x = 78/0.02 = 3900. However, verifying options, 2600 yields 1.02 × 2600 = 2652, which is 2652 − 2600 = 52. This suggests a possible error in the question’s value (78).

Q.4: If at the same rate of interest, in 2 years, the simple interest is ₹42 and the compound interest is ₹45, then what is the principal (in ₹)?

Options:

1. 44
2. 49
3. 42
4. 53

Correct Answer: 2. 49

Explanation: SI = PRT/100, so 42 = P×R×2/100, PR = 2100. CI = P[(1 + R/100)² − 1], so 45 = P[(1 + R/100)² − 1]. For small R, CI ≈ PR/100 + PR²/10000. Subtracting SI from CI: 45 − 42 = 3 = P×R²/10000. From PR = 2100, 3 = 2100×R/10000, R = 300/21 ≈ 14.29%. Then, 42 = P×14.29×2/100, P = 4200/(2×14.29) ≈ 49.

Q.5: Mandar has two grandsons, Ketan and Tushar. Mandar’s son Ketan gets some money from Mandar’s wealth, and 12-year-old Tushar receives the rest of the money. But Ketan and Tushar will earn money only when they turn 22 years old. Until then, the money is in a bank, earning interest at a rate of 8% compounded annually. When both turn 22, they receive the same amount. How much had Mandar given Tushar (in ₹) initially, if the total money with Mandar was ₹24,700?

Options:

1. 11625
2. 13175
3. 12825
4. 11875

Correct Answer: 3. 12825

Explanation: Ketan (11) receives P, Tushar (12) receives 24700 − P. At 22, Ketan’s amount after 11 years = P(1.08)¹¹, Tushar’s after 10 years = (24700 − P)(1.08)¹⁰. They receive equal amounts: P(1.08)¹¹ = (24700 − P)(1.08)¹⁰. Dividing by (1.08)¹⁰: P×1.08 = 24700 − P. So, 1.08P + P = 24700, 2.08P = 24700, P = 24700/2.08 ≈ 11875. Tushar’s share = 24700 − 11875 = 12825.

Part-D: English

Q.1: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. His ability to understand the novel was widely appreciated, as he succeeded in ______ his thoughts clearly and engaging everyone in a lively discussion about its themes.

Options:

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. B

Correct Answer: 4. B (articulating)

Explanation: The context requires an “erb meaning “to express thoughts clearly. “Articulating” fits perfectly, as it means expressing ideas effectively, aligning with the sentence’s emphasis on clear communication.

Q.2: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Grey ______ is no sure sign of attaining wisdom.

Options:

1. heir
2. air
3. hare
4. hair

Correct” Answer: “. hair

Explanation: The phrase “grey hair” is a common idiom referring to aging, implying that aging (grey hair) does not guarantee wisdom.

Q.3: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The dog ran ______ the garden chasing the cat.

Options:

1. at
2. on
3. between
4. acro”s

Corr”ct Answer: 4. across

Explanation: “Across” indicates movement from one side to another, fitting the context of the dog running through the garden.

Q.4: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. It is a sin against God and humanity to ______ places of religious worship.

Options:

1. modest
2. desecrate
3. disapprove
4. upright

“orrect An”wer: 2. desecrate

Explanation: “Desecrate” means to violate or disrespect sacred places, al”gnin” with the negative connotation of a “sin.”

Q.5: Select the correct collocation to fill in the blank. The teacher gave the students ______ instructions before the exam.

Options:

1. careful
2. great
3. strong
4. cl” aAnswerect Answer: “4. clear

Explanation: “Clear instructions” is a standard collocation, meaning easily understandable directions.

Q.6: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Arrogant

Options:

1. Creepy
2. Clumsy
3. Average
4. Humb”e

Correc” Answer: 4. Humble

Explanation: “Arrogant” means proud or overbearing; its antonym, “humble,” means modest or unpretentious.

Q.7: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Broad

Options:

1. Particular
2. Small
3. Wide
4. E”act

C”rrect”Answ”r: 3. Wide

Explanation: “Broad” and “wide” are synonyms, both indicating a large extent or scope.

Q.8: Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Man of straw

Options:

1. A combination of two people that is perfect in every way
2. A child of a celebrity or a famous person
3. A person who is disregarded as lacking character or morality
4. A situation like a close contest

Correct Answer: 3. A person who is disregarded as lacking character or morality

Explanation: A “man of straw” refers to a person perceived as weak or lacking substance in character.

Q.9: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. We will complete the project without external help, ______.

Options:

1. oneself
2. ourselves
3. itself
4. themselves

Correct Answer: 2. our” elves

Explanation: The pr”nou ourselves” agrees with the subject “we,” indicating the group will complete the project independently.

Q.10: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Flaunt

Options:

1. Parade
2. Hide
3. Wide
4. “pen

Co”rect Answer: 2. Hide

Explanation: “Flaunt” means” to d”splay ostentatiously; its antonym, “hide,” means to conceal.

Q.11: Identify the sentence with the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Options:

1. The film was praised for its stunning cinematography.
2. The scientist presented his findings at the conference.
3. The students wrote an interesting essay on the topic.
4. The bakery makes delicious pastries every day.

Correct Answer: 3. The students wrote an int”resti”g essay on the topic.

Explanation: “Esse” is  misspelled; the correct spelling is “essay.”

Q.12: Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. When it comes to cooking, she can really think creatively and unconventionally to create unique dishes that surprise everyone.

Options:

1. outside the wire
2. outside the canvas
3. outside the box
4. outside the law

Correct” Answer: 3. outside the box”e box

Explanation: “Think outside the box, ” sentence’s think creatively, matching the sentence’s description.

Q.13: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets to fill in the blank. The widespread destruction of the natural world threatens the food we eat, the water we drink, and the air we breathe.

Options:

1. contribution
2. creation
3. choice
4. condition

Correct Ans” er: 2. creation

Explanation: “Destructi”n” means ruining; its antonym, “creation,” means building or producing.

Q.14: The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. Alka had been writing / to her boss until she realized / that he was not interested in resolving her issues.

Options:

1. that he was not interested in resolving her issues
2. No error
3. to her boss until she realizes
4. Alka had been writing

Correct Answer: 3. to”her boss” until she realizes

E”planation: “Realises” should be “realised” to maintain past”tense consistency with “had been writing.”

Q.15: Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error. The students were required to write an essay as part of their assignment.

Options:

1. asignment
2. assigment
3. assignment
4. asignmant

Correct “nswer: 3. “Assignment

Explanation: The correct” pelling is “assignment”; the sentence already uses “essay” correctly.

Comprehension (Q.16–20):

Passage: Thereiseno  sense of freedom about being alone in a carriage that is jolting noisily through the night. It is liberty unrestrained in a very (2) form. You can do anything you like. You can talk to (3) as loud as you please, and no one will hear you. You can have that argument out with Jones and roll him triumphantly in the dust (4), in fear of a counterstroke. You can stand on your head and no one will see you. You can sing or dance a two-step or practise a golf stroke, (5) play marbles on the floor without let or hindrance.

Q.16: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 1.

Options:

1. pleasant
2. contem”tuous
3. te”ious
4. baleful

Correct Answer: 1. pleasant

Explanation passage” conveys a positive feeling of freedom, fitting the passage’s tone.

Q.17: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 2.

Options:

1. miserable
2. agreea”le
3. humour
4. detestable

Correct Answer: 2. agreeable

Explanation: “Agreeable” describes the form of liberty as pleasant and acceptable, aligning with the context.

Q.18: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 3.

Options:

1. yourself
2. our”elves
3. he”self
4. himself

Correct A”swe”: 1. yourself.

Explanation: “Yourself” matches the singular “you” used throughout the passage.

Q.19: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 4.

Optio”s:

1. in
2. with
3. f”r
4. without

Correct Answer: 4. without

Explanation: “Without fear” is the correct phrase, meaning free from fear of retaliation.

Q.20: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 5.

Op” ions:

1. yet
2. but
3. or
4. because

Correct Answer: 3. or

Explanation: “Or” connects the list of activities (sing, dance, play marbles) logically.

Part-D: Hindi

Q.1: निम्नलिखित वाक्यांश हेतु सार्थक शब्द की पहचान करें। जिसकी उपमा नहीं दी जा सके

Options:

1. अनापि
2. उपमा
3. अनुपम
4. अनन्य

Correct Answer: 3. अनुपम

Explanation: “अनुपम” means incomparable, fitting the phrase “जिसकी उपमा नहीं दी जा सके.”

Q.2: निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द मुक्त विस्मय संनाद सार्थक वाक्य पूर्ण करेगा।

Options:

1. अहा परि देखे मया
2. उपमा परि देखे मया
3. अह परि देखे मया
4. खाला परि देखे मया

Correct Answer: 3. अह परि देखे मया

Explanation: “अह” is an exclamatory word expressing wonder, completing the sentence appropriately.

Q.3: ‘छ: महीने का समय’ उपरोक्त वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द होगा-

Options:

1. छमाही
2. छमाई
3. छमास
4. छमही

Correct Answer: 1. छमाही

Explanation: “छमाही” is a single word meaning a six-month period.

Q.4: निम्नलिखित में से वहुवचन से संबंधित वाक्य है।

Correct Answer: (Option not provided; assume 4. किताबें समस्याएँ हैं।)

Explanation: The sentence with plural nouns (e.g., किताबें, समस्याएँ) indicates a plural-related sentence.

Q.5: इनमें से किस वाक्य में द्रुटि नहीं है?

Options:

1. मोहन का अनुहार अनी हो
2. मोहन का अनुहार अनी हो
3. आपकी बातें बहुत मौठी है।
4. सुनहरा माँझ किसका है?

Correct Answer: 4. सुनहरा माँझ किसका है?

Explanation: The fourth “entenc” is grammat”cally “o”rect” others con”ain “rrors (e.g., “अनुहार” should be “मुहार,” “मौठी” should be “मोठी”).

Q.6: निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वाक्य का चयन कीजिए-

Options:

1. यात्री सो सस्ता की सस्ती है।
2. संस्सा सोस्स को सस्ता को सस्ता
3. में भया सोस्स को सस्ता को है।
4. (Correct option not provided)

Correct Answer: (Assume a correct sentence like “यात्री सोता है।”)

Explanation: The provided options contain errors; a correct sentence would be simple and grammatically accurate.

Q.7: ‘अनन्या मोहन को पत्र लिखे’ को एकवचन संबोधक क्रिया का प्रयोग कर इस वाक्य को लिखिए –

Options:

1. अनन्या को हा को पत्र लिखो।
2. अनन्या को हा को पत्र लिखी है।
3. अनन्या को हा को पत्र लिखा को
4. अनन्या को हा को पत्र लिख।

Correct Answer: 4. अनन्या को हा को पत्र लिख।

Explanation: The singular imperative form for “लिखे” is “लिख,” making the sentence “अनन्या को हा को पत्र लिख।”

Q.8: मेरे परीक्षा में अच्छे अंक्ष आए हैं। – वाक्य में प्रयुक्त रेखांकित प्रत्यय शब्द के लिए उचित विकल्प है

Options:

1. अंकीय
2. अंका
3. अंक्षी”
4. “क

Correct Answer: 4. अंक

Explanation n: The”correct word is “अंक” (marks), replacing the misspelled “अंक्ष.”

Q.14: निम्नलिखित में से उस विकल्प का चयन करें, जिसमें उचित मुहावरे का प्रयोग नहीं किया गया हैAnswerrect Answer: (Option not provided)

Explanation: The incorrect idiom would be one that doesn’t fit the sentence’s context or meaning.

Q.15: निम्न वाक्य में क्रिया पद द्रुटि है? पहचानिए। मेले में विद्यार्थियों की करें रौनक थी।

Options:

1. करें
2. रौनक
3. विद्या”र्थियों की
4. मेले में

Correct Answer: 1. करें”

Explanationn: “करें” isincorrect;” the correct verb should be “थी” singularr,agreeingg with “रौनक”), but the sentence structure suggests “करें” is misplaced.

This SSC GD Constable Previous Year Exam Paper 2025 compilation offers a detailed resource for aspirants. By studying these MCQs, answers, and explanations, candidates can strengthen their preparation and excel in the exam. For more Previous Year Exam Papers and study materials, explore additional resources on our platform.