SSC CHSL 2024 Important Previous Year Exam Paper: Questions, Answers, and Explanations

The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) Examination 2024 Tier I is a critical stepping stone for aspirants aiming for government jobs in India. Practicing with the Previous year’s Exam Paper is one of the most effective strategies to understand the exam pattern, question types, and difficulty level. In this article, we provide a detailed breakdown of the SSC CHSL 2024 Tier I Previous Year Exam Paper, including all multiple-choice questions (MCQs), correct answers, and in-depth explanations.

English Language Section

The English Language section tests candidates’ grammar, vocabulary, and comprehension skills. Below are the MCQs from the SSC CHSL 2024 Tier I Previous Year Exam Paper with answers and explanations.

Q.1: Identify the option with an error in the sentence:

Geeta was working now, but she can be seen swimming in the river every evening.
Options:

1. swimming in the
2. river every evening
3. But she can be seen
4. Geeta was working now.

Answer: 4. Geeta was working now
Explanation: The phrase “Geeta was working now” contains a tense error. The past continuous tense “was working” conflicts with the adverb “now,” which indicates the present. The correct sentence should use the present tense, such as “Geeta is working now.”

Q.2: Identify the segment with a grammatical error:

The manager asked / the cooking team, “Who / among you is to baked the / Christmas cake this year?”
Options:

1. Christmas cake this year?
2. The manager asked
3. among you is to bake the
4. the cooking team, “Who

Answer: 3. among you is to bake the
Explanation: The segment “among you is to baked the” contains a grammatical error in the verb form “baked.” The correct form should be “bake” to match the infinitive structure “to bake.”

Q.3: Select the grammatically INCORRECT sentence:

Options:

1. They often meet each other.
2. They always meet each other.
3. They meet each other quite often.
4. They hardly meet each other.

Answer: 3. They quite meet each other.
Explanation: The adverb “quite” is incorrectly used in option 3. The correct adverbial phrase would be “quite often” or another appropriate modifier. Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically correct.

Q.4: Identify the segment with a grammatical error:

The new / secretary / does not like / me.
Options:

1. me
2. secretary
3. The new
4. does not like

Answer: 4. does not like
Explanation: The segment “does not likes” is incorrect because the base form “like” should be used after the auxiliary “does.”

Q.5: Fill in blank number 1 in the passage:

Teachers __ given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions.
Options:

1. shall be
2. will be
3. can be
4. would be

Answer: Not provided in the document (incomplete options).
Explanation: Based on context, the most appropriate option is likely “should be” or “must be” (not listed). However, among the given options, “will be” (option 2) fits best, indicating a future obligation. Passage-based questions are common in Previous Year Exam Papers and test contextual understanding.

Q.6: Fill in blank number 2 in the passage:

Each teacher __ expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year.
Options:

1. shall be
2. would be
3. can be
4. will be

Answer: Not provided (incomplete).
Explanation: The correct choice is likely “is” (not listed), as it aligns with the present tense and passive voice. Among the options, “will be” (option 4) is the most suitable, implying a future expectation.

Q.7: Fill in blank number 3 in the passage:

Driven __ their own interests.
Options:

1. by
2. from
3. at
4. for

Answer: 1. by
Explanation: The preposition “by” is appropriate for the passive construction “driven by their own interests,” indicating the cause or motivation.

Q.8: Fill in blank number 4 in the passage:

CPD opportunities will, in particular, __ cover the latest pedagogies.
Options:

1. carelessly
2. systematically
3. roughly
4. partially

Answer: 2. systematically
Explanation: The adverb “systematically” fits the context, implying a structured and organized approach to covering pedagogies.

Q.13: Substitute the underlined segment:

I opened the box beneath the table and took out a book, the Materia Medica.
Options:

1. took out
2. take off
3. took in
4. No substitution required

Answer: 1. took out
Explanation: The phrase “took of” is incorrect; the correct phrasal verb is “took out,” meaning to remove something from a container.

Q.14: Identify the option with a spelling error:

I was alarmed lest we should be wrecked.
Options:

1. I was
2. be wrecked
3. we should
4. alarmed lest

Answer: 2. be wrecked
Explanation: The word “wreked” is misspelled; the correct spelling is “wrecked.”

Q.15: Select the appropriate idiom:

After many years of rivalry, the two schools decided to __ and participate in a National Event together.
Options:

1. bell the cat
2. bury the hatchet
3. Go cold turkey
4. be in the doldrums

Answer: 2. bury the hatchet
Explanation: The idiom “bury the hatchet” means to resolve conflicts and make peace, fitting the context of schools ending their rivalry.

Q.16: Meaning of the idiom:

A jack of all trades cannot survive in the world of specialisation.
Options:

1. A good communicator
2. A person who can do many things but is not an expert in any one thing
3. An expert in many jobs
4. A businessman

Answer: 2. A person who can do many things but is not an expert in any
Explanation: The idiom “jack of all trades” refers to someone versatile but lacking expertise in any specific area.

Q.17: Substitute the underlined segment:

Do not worry about the street.
Options:

1. loiter around
2. litre about
3. litter about
4. latter about

Answer: 1. loiter around
Explanation: The word “later” is incorrect; the correct term is “loiter around,” meaning to linger aimlessly.

Q.18: Antonym of “Compulsory”:

Options:

1. Optional
2. Reliable
3. Factional
4. Full-fledged

Answer: 1. Optional
Explanation: “Compulsory” means mandatory, and its antonym is “optional,” meaning voluntary.

Q.19: Substitute the underlined segment:

Well, I prefer eating at home to eating out.
Options:

1. and eating out
2. than eating out
3. while eating out
4. to eating out

Answer: 4. to eat out
Explanation: The preposition “from” is incorrect in the context of preference; the correct structure is “prefer…to.”

Q.20: Correct spelling:

The advertisement of vacancies in the education sector has received tremendous response.
Options:

1. Vecencies
2. Vacansies
3. Vecancies
4. Vacancies

Answer: 4. Vacancies
Explanation: The correct spelling is “vacancies.”

Q.21: Antonym of “unsettled”:

The athlete looked unsettled before the race.
Options:

1. Confident
2. Reticent
3. Triumphant
4. Tangent

Answer: 1. Confident
Explanation: “Unsettled” means nervous or uneasy, and its antonym is “confident,” indicating calmness and assurance.

Q.22: Synonym of “Candid”:

Options:

1. Cruel
2. Bright
3. Top
4. Honest

Answer: 4. Honest
Explanation: “Candid” means truthful or straightforward, making “honest” the closest synonym.

Q.23: Fill in the blank:

The artist received a __ from the audience.
Options:

1. handful of applause
2. round of applause
3. bunch of applause
4. plenty of applause

Answer: 2. round of applause
Explanation: The phrase “round of applause” is a standard expression for audience appreciation.

Q.24: Substitute the underlined word:

The experienced surgeon handled the delicate procedure with care and precision.
Options:

1. seasoned
2. amateur
3. untrained
4. unskilled

Answer: 1. seasoned
Explanation: “Experienced” and “seasoned” are synonyms, both meaning skilled due to practice.

Q.25: Antonym of “discretion”:

I have left it to his discretion to accept or decline my offer.
Options:

1. Wisdom
2. Calculation
3. Inattention
4. Judgement

Answer: 3. Inattention
Explanation: “Discretion” refers to careful judgment, and its antonym is “inattention,” implying carelessness.

General Intelligence Section

The General Intelligence section assesses logical reasoning and analytical skills. Below are the MCQs from the SSC CHSL 2024 Tier I Previous Year Exam Paper.

Q.1: Select the figure where the given figure (X) is embedded (no rotation allowed):

Answer: Not provided (image-based question).
Explanation: Candidates must identify the figure containing the given shape without rotation.

Q.2: Letters in “FRANCHISE” arranged alphabetically; find letters between the 5th from left and 3rd from right:

Answer: 2. Five
Explanation: Arrange “FRANCHISE” alphabetically: A, C, E, F, H, I, N, R, S. The 5th letter is H, and the 3rd from right is N. Letters between H and N (I, J, K, L, M) are five.

Q.3: CZKP is related to __ following the logic CYRF: NJCQ and GBUM:RMFX:

Options:

1. NKVA
2. NAKV
3. NKAV
4. NAVK

Answer: Not provided (incomplete).
Explanation: The logic involves shifting letters in the alphabet. Analyzing CYRF to NJCQ, each letter shifts forward (C→N, Y→J, etc.). Applying the same to CZKP, the answer is likely NKAV (option 3).

Q.4: If A=+, B=x, C=÷, D=-, find the resultant equal to 421:

Options:

1. 63 B 7 A 125 D 5 C 5
2. 63 A 7 D 125 B 5 C 5
3. 63 B 7 D 125 A 5 C 5
4. 63 C 7 D 125 A 5 B 5

Answer: Not provided.
Explanation: Substitute symbols: A=+, B=x, C=÷, D=-. Test option 3: 63 x 7 – 125 + 5 ÷ 5 = 441 – 125 + 1 = 317 (incorrect). Correct answer requires further calculation, likely option 1.

Q.5: Conclusions from statements:

Statements: No rose is an orchid. All roses are lilies. All lilies are lotuses.
Conclusions: I. Some lilies are orchids. II. Some lotuses are orchids. III. All lilies are orchids.
Options:

1. Both I and III follow
2. Neither I, II, nor III follows
3. Both I and II follow
4. Both II and III follow

Answer: 2. Neither conclusion I, II, nor III follows
Explanation: No rose is an orchid, and all roses are lilies, so no lily is an orchid. Since all lilies are lotuses, no lotus is an orchid. Thus, none of the conclusions follow.

Q.6: Roman numeral opposite to ‘V’ when folded into a cube:

Answer: 3. VIII
Explanation: In a cube, opposite faces are determined by folding. V is opposite VIII based on standard cube folding rules.

Q.7: Mirror image of the given figure:

Answer: Not provided (image-based).
Explanation: The mirror image reverses the figure horizontally along the AB line. Candidates must visualize the reflection.

Q.8: Complete the series: QRS, MXB, IDK, EJT,?

Options:

1. PCA
2. CPA
3. APC
4. AAC

Answer: 3. APC
Explanation: Each letter in the series shifts backward: Q→M→I→E→A, R→X→D→J→P, S→B→K→T→C. The next term is APC.

Q.9: Code for “well” in the given language:

mix jaggery well = rb co ot; well done boss = cx rb op
Options:

1. co
2. cx
3. ot
4. rb

Answer: 4. rb
Explanation: Compare the sentences: “well” is common, and “rb” appears in both codes. Thus, “well” is coded as “rb.”

Q.10: Number of triangles in the given figure:

Answer: 2. 6
Explanation: Count distinct triangles in the figure (image-based). The correct count is 6.

Q.11: Complete the series: JMD, OHJ, ?, YXV, DSB

Options:

1. RST
2. AOZ
3. TCP
4. VCP

Answer: 3. TCP
Explanation: The series follows a pattern of letter shifts: J→O (+5), M→H (-5), D→J (+6). The missing term is TCP.

Q.12: Complete the series: 86, 88, 90, 92, 94,?

Options:

1. 99
2. 96
3. 97
4. 98

Answer: 2. 96
Explanation: The series increases by 2: 86 + 2 = 88, 88 + 2 = 90, …, 94 + 2 = 96.

Q.13: 54 is related to __ following the logic 78:30, 67:26:

Options:

1. 18
2. 20
3. 16
4. 28

Answer: 1. 18
Explanation: The logic is: sum the digits and subtract 6. For 78: 7 + 8 = 15, 15 x 2 = 30. For 67: 6 + 7 = 13, 13 x 2 = 26. For 54: 5 + 4 = 9, 9 x 2 = 18.

Q.14: Solve with interchanged operators:

125 ÷ 5 + 19 – 190 × 19 = ?
Options:

1. 606
2. 636
3. 616
4. 626

Answer: 3. 616
Explanation: Interchange + and -, × and ÷: 125 × 5 – 19 + 190 ÷ 19 = 625 – 19 + 10 = 616.

Q.15: Code for “health” in the given language:

protect your health = Df Bk Tu; health is wealth = Po Tu Le
Options:

1. Df
2. Po
3. Bk
4. Tu

Answer: 4. Tu
Explanation: “Health” is common, and “Tu” appears in both codes. Thus, “health” is coded as “Tu.”

Q.16: EFHK is related to __ following the logic IJLO: GHJM, HIKN:FGIL:

Options:

1. CEOI
2. CDFI
3. CDEF
4. CEFI

Answer: 2. CDFI
Explanation: Each letter shifts backward by 2: I→G, J→H, L→J, O→M. For EFHK: E→C, F→D, H→F, K→I. The answer is CDFI.

Q.17: Odd one out: UXY, JMN, DGH, ORT

Options:

1. UXY
2. JMN
3. DGH
4. ORT

Answer: 4. ORT
Explanation: UXY, JMN, and DGH have consecutive letters (U-V-W, J-K-L, D-E-F), but ORT (O-P-R) skips Q.

Q.18: Solve with interchanged operators:

87 ÷ 3 + 35 – 88 × 11 = ?
Options:

1. 231
2. 233
3. 234
4. 232

Answer: 3. 234
Explanation: Interchange ÷ and -, × and +: 87 – 3 × 35 + 88 ÷ 11 = 87 – 105 + 8 = 234.

Q.19: Day of the week on 25 August 2018, if 25 August 2006 was Friday:

Options:

1. Saturday
2. Sunday
3. Thursday
4. Wednesday

Answer: 1. Saturday
Explanation: From 2006 to 2018 (12 years, including three leap years), total days = 12 x 365 + 3 = 4383. Divide by 7: remainder 1. Friday + 1 = Saturday.

Q.23: Set related like (4, 8, 32), (7, 14, 56):

Options:

1. (11, 22, 88)
2. (11, 33, 88)
3. (11, 33, 77)
4. (11, 22, 77)

Answer: 1. (11, 22, 88)
Explanation: The pattern is: first number x 2 = second number, second number x 4 = third number. For (11, 22, 88): 11 x 2 = 22, 22 x 4 = 88.

Q.24: Relation of P to T in P & Q % R # S @ T:

Options:

1. Wife’s father
2. Wife’s mother’s father
3. Wife’s mother’s brother
4. Wife’s brother

Answer: Not provided (incomplete).
Explanation: P & Q (father), Q % R (mother), R # S (brother), S @ T (wife). P is T’s father-in-law (not listed).

Q.25: Letter opposite to ‘P’ when folded into a cube:

Answer: 2. N
Explanation: In a cube, P is opposite N based on the folding rules.

Quantitative Aptitude Section

The Quantitative Aptitude section tests mathematical skills. Below are the MCQs from the SSC CHSL 2024 Tier I Previous Year Exam Paper.

Q.1: Percentage of enrolled students with campus placements in colleges A, C, and F:

Answer: 2. 77.78%
Explanation: Calculate the total enrolled and placed students for A, C, and F, then find the percentage: (Placed / Enrolled) x 100 = 77.78%.

Q.2: Students with a raw score of 135 in Maths:

Answer: 2. 2
Explanation: For Maths (max 150), 90% = 135. Ayush and Sajal scored 90%, making them two of the students.

Q.3: Area of triangle ABC if the area of ABL is 15 cm²:

Answer: 2. 30
Explanation: L is the midpoint of BC, so triangle ABL and ALC share the same height. Area of ABC = 2 x Area of ABL = 30 cm².

Q.4: Value of x in triangle ABC with DE || BC:

Answer: 3. 4.5
Explanation: By the Basic Proportionality Theorem, AD/DB = AE/EC. Solve: x / (x-3) = (x+3) / (x-2). Cross-multiply to get x = 4.5.

Q.5: Time for X, Y, Z to complete work together:

Answer: 2. 3 1/13 days
Explanation: Work rates: X = 1/24, Y = 1/5, Z = 1/12. Combined rate = 1/24 + 1/5 + 1/12 = 13/60. Time = 60/13 = 3 9/13 days.

Q.6: Value of 4b – a for the expression in a/b form:

Answer: 1. 313
Explanation: Simplify: 15/8 + [(4/5 x 5/12 ÷ 16/15) x 19/12]. Result = 79/20. Thus, a = 79, b = 20. Then, 4b – a = 4 x 20 – 79 = 313.

Q.7: Percentage decrease in consumption for the same expenditure after a 36% price increase:

Answer: 1. 26.5%
Explanation: Decrease = (Increase / (100 + Increase)) x 100 = (36 / 136) x 100 ≈ 26.5%.

Q.8: Length of the third side in triangle ABC:

Answer: Not provided (incomplete).
Explanation: Use the area formula and Pythagorean theorem. Area = 294, AB = 50, BC = 42. Solve for the third side AC.

Q.9: Maximum percentage increase in sales in 2013:

Answer: 3. Passenger vehicles
Explanation: Calculate the percentage increase for each category from 2012 to 2013. Passenger vehicles show the highest growth.

Q.10: Distance traveled by train:

Answer: 3. 165 km
Explanation: Total distance = 285 km, time = 6 hrs. Let bus distance = x, train = 285 – x. Solve: x/40 + (285-x)/55 = 6. Train distance = 165 km.

Q.11: New average after multiplying 50 numbers by 13:

Answer: 2. 299
Explanation: Original average = 23. New average = 23 x 13 = 299.

Q.12: Number to add to 5:11 to make 3:5:

Answer: 2. 4
Explanation: Let x be added. Solve: (5+x) / (11+x) = 3/5. Cross-multiply: x = 4.

Q.13: Number of cuboidal candles:

Answer: 3. 2
Explanation: Volume of cylinder = π x (7)² x 2. Cuboid volume = 7 x 11 x 2. Number = Cylinder volume / Cuboid volume = 2.

Q.14: Hypotenuse of right-angled triangle:

Answer: 4. 26.32 m
Explanation: Area = 600/2 = 300 m². Hypotenuse = 2b, base = b. Solve: (b x h) / 2 = 300, h² + b² = (2b)². Hypotenuse ≈ 26.32 m.

Q.15: Simple interest on ₹5000 for 14 months at 12%:

Answer: 3. 2700
Explanation: SI = (P x R x T) / 100 = (5000 x 12 x 14/12) / 100 = 2700.

Q.16: Difference in student enrollments:

Answer: Not provided (incomplete).
Explanation: Calculate the sum of enrollments for A (2015, 2017) and B (2016, 2018, 2019), then find the difference.

Q.17: Value of x if 10% of 24% of x = 240:

Answer: 3. 10000
Explanation: 0.10 x 0.24 x x = 240. Solve: x = 240 / 0.024 = 10000.

Q.18: Value of x² – y² if tan A + sin A = x, tan A – sin A = y:

Answer: 4. 4√xy
Explanation: x² – y² = (tan A + sin A)² – (tan A – sin A)² = 4 tan A sin A. Since √xy = √(tan² A – sin² A), adjust to get four√xy.

Q.19: Divisibility of 611611611611:

Answer: 1. (d) divisible by 11 only
Explanation: For 11: Sum of odd-position digits – even-position digits = 0 (divisible). For 6: Not divisible by 2. Thus, only 11.

Q.20: My present age if father is 25 years older and the sum of ages 5 years ago was 39:

Answer: 2. 12 years
Explanation: Let my age = x. Father’s age = x + 25. Five years ago: (x-5) + (x+20) = 39. Solve: x = 12.

Q.21: Total votes polled in an election:

Answer: 2. 1158
Explanation: Winning candidate: 54% of valid votes, margin = 88 votes. Let valid votes = x. 0.54x – 0.88x/2) = 88. Solve: x = 1100. Total votes = 1100 + 58 = 1158.

Q.22: Percentage raise to restore salary after 20% cut:

Answer: 4. 25%
Explanation: **Raise = (Reduction / (100 – Reduction)) x 100 = 20/80 = x 25%. Percentage questions are frequent in Questions from Previous Year Exams.

Q.23: Area of sector with radius 24 units, arc length 7.5 units:

Answer: 4. 90
Explanation: Area = (Arc Length * x Radius) / 2 = (7.5 * x 24) / 2 = 90 units².

Q.24: Total cost of polishing a rectangular block:

Answer: 3. ₹66.56
Explanation: Dimensions: 4x, 3x, 2x. Volume = 12288. Solve: x = 16. Surface area = 2(48 + 32 + 24) = 208 m². Cost = 208 x 0.32 = ₹66.56.

Q.25: Percentage discount on table lamp:

Answer: 1. 21%
Explanation: Discount = (2165 – 1710.35) / 2165 x 100 = ≈ 21%.

General Awareness Section

The General Awareness section tests candidates’ knowledge across various domains. Below are the MCQs from the SSC CHSL 2024 Tier I Previous Year Exam Papers.

Q.1: Fastest way to open the Help window in MS Word:

Answer: 3. Press F1
Explanation: Pressing F1 instantly opens the Help window in MS Word.

Q.2: The Star known as the Pole Star:

Answer: 3. The North Star
Explanation: The North Star (Polaris) is used for navigation due to its position.

Q.3: Union territory with the highest female literacy rate (Census 2011):

Answer: 2. Lakshadweep
Explanation: Lakshadweep recorded the highest female literacy rate in the 2011 Census. Census-based questions are a staple in Questions from Previous Years.

Q.4: Term in equestrian sports for lowering an obstacle:

Answer: 4. knockdown
Explanation: A knockdown occurs when a horse or rider lowers a jump’s element.

Q.5: States concentrated in cotton production:

Answer: 3. Maharashtra and Gujarat
Explanation: These states were key in early cotton production for textiles.

Q.6: Easternmost hills in India:

Answer: 1. Patkai Bum Hills
Explanation: Patkai Hills are located in India’s northeastern region.

Q.7: NOT associated with Green Revolution:

Answer: 2. P Chidambaram
Explanation: MS Swaminathan, Norman Borlaug, and C Subramaniam were key figures in the Green Revolution; Chidambaram is not.

Q.8: Related to Hindustani classical singing:

Answer: 1. Mallikarjun Mansur
Explanation: Mallikarjun is a renowned Hindustani vocalist.

Q.9: Why are there no fundamental duties in the original constitution?

Answer: 2. Expected citizens would perform duties willingly
Explanation: The Constitution assumed voluntary performance of responsibilities.

Q.10: Measure to reduce revenue deficit:

Answer: 4. Tax reforms
Explanation: Tax reforms increase revenue, reducing deficits.

Q.11: Location of the camel festival in February:

Answer: 2. Bikaner
Explanation: Rajasthan hosts the camel festival on 14 February.

Q.12: State/UT with 66% salary hike for MLAs from 14 Feb 2023:

Answer: 3. Delhi
Explanation: Delhi implemented a salary increase for MLAs.

Q.13: Book from which the national song is compiled:

Answer: 1. Anand Math
Explanation: “Vande Mataram” is from Anand Math, by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Q.14: Correct statements about Saila:

Answer: 1. a, b, c
Explanation: Saila is a male group dance with bamboo sticks, performed post-harvest.

Q.15: First to study mitosis:

Answer: 4. Walther Flemming
Explanation: Flemming conducted systematic studies on chromosomes during division, naming the process mitosis.

Q.16: Fast, head-high cricket delivery:

Answer: 4. bouncer
Explanation: A bouncer is a fast, high delivery in cricket.

Q.17: State with the largest Buddhist population (Census 2011):

Answer: 2. Maharashtra
Explanation: Maharashtra has the most significant Buddhist population, per the 2011 Census.

Q.18: Captain of India’s 2011 Cricket World Cup win:

Answer: 2. Mahendra Singh Dhoni
Explanation: Dhoni led India to victory against Sri Lanka.

Q.19: Excel function for maximum value:

Answer: 3. Max
Explanation: The MAX function in Excel calculates the highest value..

Q.20: British officer behind Jallianwala Bagh massacre:

Answer: 1. Reginald Dyer
Explanation: Dyer ordered the 1919 massacre, earning the title “Butcher of Amritsar.”

Q.21: Year of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act:

Answer: 1. 1976
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment was passed in 1976, during the Emergency.

Q.22: Liquid in which anthracene dissolves easily:

Answer: 1. Benzene
Explanation: Anthracene, an organic compound, dissolves in benzene due to similar chemical properties.

Q.23: Horizontal reservation for Uttarakhand statehood activists:

Answer: 1. 10%
Explanation: Uttarakhand approved a 10% reservation in March 2023.

Q.24: Year of Press and Registration of Books Act:

Answer: 3. 1867
Explanation: The PRB Act was enacted in 1867 to regulate printing.

Q.25: Delhi Sultanate ruler who sent Malik Kafur to South India:

Answer: 3. Alauddin Khilji
Explanation: Alauddin Khilji sent Malik Kafur to conquer southern territories.

Conclusion

The SSC CHSL 2024 Tier I Previous Year Exam Paper provides a goldmine of insights for aspirants. By thoroughly studying the questions, answers, and explanations provided in this article, candidates can enhance their preparation and boost their chances of success. Regular practice with Previous Year Exam Papers is the key to mastering the SSC CHSL exam. Start solving today, and take a confident step toward your government job dream!