SBI PO Prelims 2024-25 Memory-Based Paper Questions and Answers
This article provides a detailed guide to the SBI PO Prelims 2024-25 memory-based question paper from the 1st shift held on March 8, 2025. Designed for aspirants preparing for banking exams, it includes all questions from the provided document, correct answers, and clear explanations.
English Language Section
Q1. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of words that can fit into the given blank in the same order to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The company’s sudden announcement of layoffs was seen as unfair by many employees, who did not feel the decision had been made fairly from the beginning.
(a) abrupt, predetermined
(b) strategic, unexpected
(c) transparent, concealed
(d) calculated, improvised
(e) reckless, justified
Answer: (a) abrupt, predetermined
Explanation: The sentence implies the layoffs were sudden and unexpected, making “abrupt” (sudden and unexpected) suitable for the first blank. For the second blank, “predetermined” (decided in advance) fits, as it suggests the decision was made earlier, which employees felt was unknown to them. Other options like “strategic, unexpected” or “reckless, justified” do not align logically with the sentence’s context.
Q2. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of words that can fit into the given blank in the same order to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The government’s response to the crisis was criticised as inadequate and only served to exacerbate the public’s frustration.
(a) ineffectual, exacerbate
(b) prudent, alleviate
(c) swift, suppress
(d) deliberate, intensify
(e) measured, pacify
Answer: (a) ineffectual, exacerbate
Explanation: The sentence suggests the government’s response was ineffective and worsened public frustration. “Ineffectual” (lacking impact) fits the first blank, indicating failure to address the crisis. “Exacerbate” (to worsen) fits the second blank, as it aligns with increasing frustration. Other options like “prudent, alleviate” (careful, reduce) or “swift, suppress” do not fit the negative tone of the sentence.
Q4. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of words that can fit into the given blank in the same order to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The whistleblower’s testimony was so ______ that it left lawmakers scrambling to ______ the allegations before they could gain further traction.
(a) uninformative, dismiss
(b) baseless, ignore
(c) damning, counter
(d) neutral, endorse
(e) unfounded, deny
Answer: (c) damning, counter
Explanation: The testimony is impactful, causing lawmakers to react urgently, so “damning” (revealing guilt or failure) fits the first blank. “Counter” (oppose or weaken) suits the second blank, as lawmakers aim to refute the allegations. Options like “uninformative, dismiss” or “neutral, endorse” do not convey the testimony’s profound impact or the lawmakers’ defensive response.
Q5. In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of words that can fit into the given blank in the same order to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.
The new scientific discovery was hailed as groundbreaking but also met with scepticism, as researchers sought to verify the results through further experiments.
(a) revolutionary, replicate
(b) trivial, ignore
(c) debatable, obscure
(d) conclusive, pacify
(e) marginal, amplify
Answer: (a) revolutionary, replicate
Explanation: The discovery is significant, so “revolutionary” (groundbreaking) fits the first blank. Researchers aim to verify results, making “replicate” (reproduce to confirm) appropriate for the second blank. Options like “trivial, ignore” or “conclusive, pacify” do not align with the context of a notable discovery needing validation.
Directions (6-12): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The corresponding letter of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, then choose option ‘No error’ as your answer response. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
Q6. The pack of wolves (A)/was seen roaming (B)/ near the deserted village (C)/ at dawn. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The subject “The pack of wolves” is singular, referring to the group as a whole. The verb “were” (plural) is incorrect; it should be “was” (singular). Correct sentence: “The pack of wolves was seen roaming near the deserted village at dawn.”
Q7. She narrowly escaped (A)/ to fall into the (B)/ deep trench (C)/ near the cliff’s edge. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The verb “escape” is followed by a gerund, not an infinitive. “To fall” is incorrect; it should be “falling.” Correct sentence: “She narrowly escaped falling into the deep trench near the cliff’s edge.”
Q8. Despite being warned (A)/ about the storm, he insisted (B)/ to go for a (C)/ late-night drive. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (c) C
Explanation: The verb “insist” requires the preposition “on” followed by a gerund. “To go” is incorrect; it should be “on going.” Correct sentence: “Despite being warned about the storm, he insisted on going for a late-night drive.”
Q9. He pretended (A)/ that he knows nothing (B)/ about the secret plan (C)/ discussed in the meeting. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The verb “pretended” (past tense) requires the subordinate clause to use the past tense for consistency. “Knows” should be “knew.” Correct sentence: “He pretended that he knew nothing about the secret plan discussed in the meeting.”
Q10. Not only did he (A)/ ignore the warnings, (B)/ but he also (C)/ mocked the elders. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (a) A
Explanation: In the “not only…but also” construction, inversion is required after “not only.” “Not only he” should be “Not only did he.” Correct sentence: “Not only did he ignore the warnings, but he also mocked the elders.”
Q11. She found (A)/ an unique solution (B)/ to the complex (C)/ logistical problem. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The article “an” is used before vowel sounds, but “unique” starts with a consonant sound (/juː/). “An unique” should be “a unique.” Correct sentence: “She found a unique solution to the complex logistical problem.”
Q12. The rebels planned (A)/ to blow out (B)/ the bridge before (C)/ reinforcements arrived. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The phrase “blow out” (extinguish) is incorrect in this context. The correct phrase is “blow up” (destroy with an explosion). Correct sentence: “The rebels planned to blow up the bridge before reinforcements arrived.”
Directions (13-21): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
With the United States recently lifting its ban on online betting, the digital gambling landscape has experienced a significant paradigm shift, redefining the intersection between technology and wagering. The surge in sports engagement has been notable. With online betting becoming more accessible, the younger demographic is demonstrating a heightened interest in various athletic competitions, including football, basketball, and eSports. Europe, a longstanding hub for both regulated gambling and sports culture, has particularly benefited from this trend. Increased viewership and participation in sporting events, coupled with a surge in revenue streams for clubs and leagues, have fortified the economic structure of professional athletics. Moreover, the adoption of responsible gambling initiatives across European jurisdictions has helped mitigate some of the potential downsides of digital wagering. However, the rapid expansion of online betting carries inherent risks. The accessibility and anonymity afforded by digital gambling platforms can foster addictive behaviours, particularly among impressionable youth. A lack of financial literacy among new bettors exacerbates the potential for substantial monetary losses, while the gamified nature of online casinos may obscure the psychological toll of compulsive gambling. If left unchecked, what was once a recreational activity can quickly devolve into a destructive vice, draining financial resources and leading to social isolation.
Q13. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
(I) The reversal of online betting laws in the U.S. has only influenced gambling trends in the country itself.
(II) The integration of live-streaming within sports betting platforms has transformed how users engage with betting.
(III) Online betting platforms integrate live-streaming services to enhance real-time engagement.
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) All (I), (II), and (III)
(e) Only (I)
Answer: (c) Both (II) and (III)
Explanation: The passage does not explicitly state (II) and (III) but implies that online betting platforms enhance engagement, likely through features like live-streaming. (I) The statement is incorrect because the passage mentions a global ripple effect, not just a U.S.-specific influence.
Q14. Which of the following is a major concern associated with online betting, as mentioned in the passage?
(a) Traditional casinos will completely disappear.
(b) Gambling companies manipulate algorithms to increase losses.
(c) Online betting will lead to biased betting outcomes.
(d) A lack of proper financial education may lead to severe monetary losses for new bettors.
(e) Governments will completely ban online betting again due to its risks.
Answer: (d) A lack of proper financial education may lead to severe monetary losses for new bettors.
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that a lack of financial literacy exacerbates monetary losses, making (d) correct. The passage does not support other options.
Q15. Identify the INCORRECT statement based on the passage.
(a) The U.S. legalization of online betting has influenced global gambling trends, impacting regulations and betting dynamics in other countries.
(b) Online gambling companies have successfully eliminated gambling addiction through AI-driven detection and prevention systems.
(c) The passage highlights that gamification in digital betting can make gambling more addictive by obscuring its long-term consequences.
(d) Both A and B
(e) All are incorrect
Answer: (b) Online gambling companies have successfully eliminated gambling addiction through AI-driven detection and prevention systems.
Explanation: The passage does not claim that gambling addiction has been eliminated, only that responsible gambling initiatives mitigate risks. (a) and (c) are correct based on the passage.
Q16. Identify the correct synonym for “engage” based on its usage in the passage.
(a) Capture
(b) Captivate
(c) Emerge
(d) Replace
(e) Evolve
Answer: (b) Captivate
Explanation: In the context of increased sports engagement, “engage” means to attract or hold interest. “Captivate” (to attract and hold attention) is the closest synonym. Other options, such as “emerge” or “replace,” do not fit.
Q17. Based on the passage, how has the U.S. decision to legalize online betting impacted global gambling trends?
(a) It has primarily benefited U.S. sports leagues, while the global gambling industry remains unaffected due to differing regulatory structures.
(b) The passage suggests that U.S. legalization has caused a worldwide increase in problem gambling, overwhelming responsible gambling initiatives.
(c) The ripple effect of this decision has influenced European markets by increasing sports engagement and enhancing revenue streams for sports leagues.
(d) The decision has allowed fraudulent activities to flourish.
(e) The sports industry has opposed online betting due to its negative financial impact.
Answer: (c) The ripple effect of this decision has influenced European markets by increasing sports engagement and enhancing revenue streams for sports leagues.
Explanation: The passage states that the U.S. legalization has influenced global trends, particularly benefiting Europe with increased sports engagement and revenue, making (c) correct.
Q18. Which of the following best captures the primary concern about digital gambling as per the passage?
(a) The absence of regulation in digital gambling has allowed fraudulent activities to flourish.
(b) The psychological and financial dangers of unchecked digital gambling, particularly among young and inexperienced users.
(c) The negative impact of online betting on professional sports, leading to a decline in revenue and viewership.
(d) The erosion of traditional casino culture due to the increasing preference for digital betting platforms.
(e) The long-term economic instability of online gambling companies due to increasing competition and market saturation.
Answer: (b) The psychological and financial dangers of unchecked digital gambling, particularly among young and inexperienced users.
Explanation: The passage highlights risks like addiction, financial losses, and psychological toll, especially for youth, making (b) the primary concern.
Q19. Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to the opposite of “vice” as used in the passage?
(a) Corruption
(b) Virtue
(c) Immorality
(d) Sin
(e) Depravity
Answer: (b) Virtue
Explanation: “Vice” in the passage refers to a destructive habit (compulsive gambling). The opposite is “virtue” (moral goodness). Other options like “corruption” or “sin” are synonyms of vice.
Q20. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
(I) The reversal of online betting laws in the U.S. has only influenced gambling trends in the country itself.
(II) The integration of live-streaming within sports betting platforms has transformed how users engage with betting.
(III) Online betting platforms integrate live-streaming services to enhance real-time engagement.
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) All (I), (II), and (III)
(e) Only (I)
Answer: (c) Both (II) and (III)
Explanation: The passage implies enhanced engagement through platforms, likely including live-streaming, making (II) and (III) correct. (I) It is incorrect due to the global ripple effect mentioned.
Q21. Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to “launching” as used in the passage?
(a) Terminating
(b) Initiating
(c) Encouraging
(d) Preponing
(e) Withdrawing
Answer: (b) Initiating
Explanation: “Launching” refers to starting something new (e.g., a platform). “Initiating” (beginning) is the closest synonym. Other options, such as “terminating” (ending) or “preponing” (rescheduling earlier), do not fit.
Q22. The ancient temple (A)/ crumbled under the relentless force of the majestic (B)/ rain, leaving only fragments of its once crumbled (C)/ structure scattered across the valley.
(a) ACB
(b) CAB
(c) BAC
(d) BCA
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (b) CAB
Explanation: The correct order is “torrential” (A) describing rain, “crumbled” (C) describing the temple’s state, and “majestic” (B) describing the structure. Correct sentence: “The ancient temple crumbled under the relentless force of the torrential rain, leaving only fragments of its once majestic structure scattered across the valley.”
Q23. The commander’s pivotal (A)/ to launch the offensive (B)/ at dawn cost the army a reluctance (C)/ strategic advantage in the battle.
(a) CBA
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) CAB
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (a) CBA
Explanation: The correct order places “reluctance” (C) with the decision to launch, “pivotal” (A) with strategic advantage, and “offensive” (B) correctly positioned. Correct sentence: “The commander’s reluctance to launch the offensive at dawn cost the army a pivotal strategic advantage in the battle.”
Q24. The detective’s astute (A)/ observations led to a crucial (B)/ clue that unraveled (C)/ the mystery.
(a) CAB
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) BCA
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: The sentence is already grammatically and logically correct, with “astute” describing observations, “crucial” describing the clue, and “unraveled” fitting the mystery.
Q25. The leader’s resilient (A)/ attitude in adversity (B)/ motivated his team to face challenges with fearless (C)/ determination.
(a) BCA
(b) CAB
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: The sentence is correct, with “resilient” describing attitude, and “fearless” appropriately modifying determination, maintaining logical flow.
Directions (26-30): Rearrange the following statements to form a coherent paragraph and then answer the given questions.
(A) Their persistent efforts led to a remarkable transformation, ensuring a steady water supply and revitalising local farming.
(B) In the 1990s, the crisis deepened, prompting a group of determined women to take matters into their own hands by developing innovative irrigation techniques.
(C) Additionally, policymakers announced the formulation of women empowerment programs to support similar community-driven efforts.
(D) Impressed by their contribution, the government not only praised their work but also introduced incentives to support their initiatives.
(E) This inspiring movement has set a precedent for sustainable development and gender-inclusive progress in the region.
(F) For decades, a village struggled with severe water shortages, impacting agriculture and daily life.
Q26. Which of the following is the correct sequence after rearrangement?
(a) FABCED
(b) FBADCE
(c) BAECDF
(d) FADCEB
(e) BCDEAF
Answer: (b) FBADCE
Explanation: The logical sequence starts with (F) introducing the water shortage problem, followed by (B) describing the women’s actions in the 1990s. (A) details the transformation, (D) shows government recognition, (C) mentions policy support, and (E) concludes with the movement’s broader impact.
Q27. Which of the following is the FIRST statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E
Answer: (d) F
Explanation: (F) introduces the problem (water shortage), setting the context for the paragraph, making it the first statement.
Q28. Which of the following is the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (c) C
Explanation: In the sequence FBADCE, (C) (policymakers’ programs) is the fifth statement, following government recognition in (D).
Q29. Which of the following is the THIRD statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (a) A
Explanation: In the sequence FBADCE, (A) (transformation due to efforts) is the third statement, following (B).
Q30. Which of the following is the LAST statement after rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (e) E
Explanation: (E) concludes the paragraph by summarising the movement’s impact, making it the last statement in FBADCE.
Q31. Column I
A. Struggling to navigate the stormy seas,
B. The unexpected turn of events
C. Enduring the relentless hardships,
Column II
D. They refused to abandon hope.
E. left the entire nation in shock.
F. He emerged stronger than before.
(a) A-D
(b) B-D
(c) C-F
(d) A-E
(e) Both A-D and C-F
Answer: (e) Both A-D and C-F
Explanation: A-D forms “Struggling to navigate the stormy seas, they refused to abandon hope,” a complete sentence. C-F forms “Enduring the relentless hardships, he emerged stronger than before,” which is also complete and meaningful.
Q32. Column I
A. Concealing his growing frustration,
B. The sudden betrayal of his closest ally
C. Fiercely resisting the oppressive rule,
Column II
D. was an act of defiance
E. shattered his faith in loyalty
F. was rolling hills in a warm glow
(a) A-D
(b) A-E
(c) C-F
(d) B-E
(e) Both A-D and B-E
Answer: (d) B-E
Explanation: B-E forms “The sudden betrayal of his closest ally shattered his faith in loyalty,” a logical sentence. A-D and C-F are incorrect as they do not form coherent sentences.
Directions (33-38): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by letters. For each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately.
Black pepper, often referred to as the “king of spices,” is an essential component of cuisines worldwide and has been used for centuries in both culinary and medicinal practices. It (B) was originally cultivated in South Asia, particularly in India, where it thrives in humid, tropical climates. The distinctive aroma of black pepper (C) comes from its volatile oils, especially piperine, which contributes to its pungency and potential health benefits. Its cultivation (D) is widely practised in many countries today. Black pepper (E) is typically ground just before use to preserve its flavour, whereas grinding essential oils (F) causes them to dissipate over time. Pepper should be stored in an airtight container away from heat and moisture. Whether used as a seasoning or a medicinal remedy, black pepper remains one of the most widely consumed spices in the world.
Q33. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank A.
(a) remains
(b) signifies
(c) denotes
(d) embodies
(e) constitutes
Answer: (a) remains
Explanation: “Remains” indicates that black pepper continues to be essential, fitting the present context. Other options, such as “signifies” or “denotes,” do not convey ongoing status.
Q34. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank B.
(a) is
(b) has
(c) had been
(d) was being
(e) was
Answer: (e) was
Explanation: The past tense “was” fits as the sentence describes the historical origin of black pepper cultivation. Present or continuous tenses do not suit the context.
Q35. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank C.
(a) emerge
(b) derives
(c) originates
(d) stems
(e) exudes
Answer: (c) originates
Explanation: “Originates” best fits as it means the aroma comes from volatile oils, aligning with the sentence’s focus on source. “Derives” or “stems” are less precise.
Q36. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank D.
(a) is
(b) was
(c) has been
(d) had been
(e) will be
Answer: (a) is
Explanation: The present tense “is” suits the current widespread cultivation of black pepper. Past or future tenses do not fit the context.
Q37. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank E.
(a) has
(b) was
(c) had
(d) is
(e) are
Answer: (d) is
Explanation: The present tense “is” fits as the sentence describes a current practice of grinding black pepper. Plural or past tenses are incorrect.
Q38. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank F.
(a) causes
(b) had caused
(c) has caused
(d) cause
(e) will cause
Answer: (a) causes
Explanation: “Causes” in the present tense fits the general truth that grinding leads to oil dissipation. Past or future tenses do not suit the context.
Q39. Despite the heavy storm, the fishermen decided to set sail early in the morning.
(a) Despite the heavy storm
(b) Despite the heavy storm
(c) Although of the heavy storm
(d) Despite the heavy storm
(e) No correction required
Answer: (a) Despite the heavy storm
Explanation: “Despite” does not take the preposition “of.” The correct phrase is “Despite the heavy storm.” Other options are grammatically incorrect.
Q40. Had he known about the crisis, he would have helped his colleagues before leaving.
(a) He would have helped
(b) He will help
(c) He should help
(d) No correction required
(e) he would helped
Answer: (a) he would have helped
Explanation: The sentence uses the third conditional for a past hypothetical situation, requiring “would have helped” to match “had known.” Other options are incorrect for tense or grammar.
Quantitative Aptitude Section
Q41. In A, the ratio of flats occupied by female workers in the public sector is 120, which is 20% higher than that of flats occupied by males and those in the Private sector. Find the sum of the flats occupied by males in the public sector and females in the private sector.
(a) 80
(b) 90
(c) 100
(d) 150
(e) 120
Answer: (a) 80
Explanation: For building A, total occupied flats = 300, with public sector = 200 (from 4x + 40, x = 40). Public sector female flats = 120, so male = 200 – 120 = 80. Private sector flats = 100 (ratio 2:1). Female private sector flats = 0 (as 120 is 20% more than male public + private, implying no female private). Sum = 80 + 0 = 80.
Q42. In building F, the ratio of occupied to vacant flats is the same as in building B. The flats occupied by public sector employees are the average of those occupied by private sector employees in A and B. Suppose the vacant flats in F are 2/5th of the flats occupied by public sector employees. Find the total flats occupied by private sector employees in F.
(a) 25
(b) 39
(c) 24
(d) 50
(e) 20
Answer: (a) 25
Explanation: For A: occupied = 300, vacant = 200, public = 200, private = 100. For B: occupied = 390, vacant = 130, public = 240, private = 150. In F, occupied: vacant = 3:1 (same as B). Public sector in F = (100 + 150)/2 = 125. Vacant flats = (2/5) × 125 = 50. Total occupied = 3m, vacant = m, so m = 50. Private sector in F = 3 × 50 – 125 = 25.
Q43. Find the ratio of flats occupied by public sector employees in A and B together to flats occupied by private employees in C and flats occupied by public sector employees in D.
(a) 5:6
(b) 17:11
(c) 10:11
(d) 1:1
(e) 12:11
Answer: (b) 17:11
Explanation: Public sector in A = 200, in B = 240, total = 440. Private sector in C = 180, public in D = 150, total = 330. Ratio = 440:330 = 44:33 = 17:11.
Q44. In D, 20% of the public sector employees have a car, and the remaining 80% have a bike. In contrast, 40% of the private sector employees have a bike, and the remaining 60% have a car. Find the difference between the percentage of public sector employees who have a bike and the percentage of private sector employees who have a car.
(a) 50
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 125
(e) 120
Answer: (b) 75
Explanation: In D, public sector = 150; cars = 20% × 150 = 30, bikes = 120. Private sector = 75; bikes = 40% × 75 = 30, cars = 45. Difference = 120 – 45 = 75.
Q45. If the number of flats in a floor is 2.5x and the number of flats in each floor is the same. Find the sum of the number of floors in C and D.
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) 12
Answer: (d) 11
Explanation: For A, 4x + 40 = 200, so x = 40. Flats per floor = 2.5 × 40 = 100. For C, total flats = 600, floors = 600/100 = 6. For D, total flats = 500, floors = 500/100 = 5. Sum = 6 + 5 = 11.
Directions (46-50): Read the following pie chart and bar graph carefully and answer the questions given below. The bar graph shows the total number of magazines and newspapers published by five different publishers. The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the newspapers published by these publishers. Note: The total number of magazines published by A is 50.
Q46. The total number of newspapers published by F is 25% more than that of C, and the total number of magazines published by B and F is in the ratio of 7:4, respectively. Find the difference between the total number of magazines and newspapers published by F.
(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 35
(d) 30
(e) 20
Answer: (b) 45
Explanation: Total newspapers: A = 80 (20%), B = 40 (10%), C = 100 (25%), D = 60 (15%), E = 120 (30%), total = 400. Newspapers by F = 1.25 × 100 = 125. Magazines: B = 140, F = (4/7) × 140 = 80. Difference = 125 – 80 = 45.
Q47. 40% of the number of magazines published by A are sold, and 20% of the number of newspapers published by A are unsold; then find the ratio of the total number of magazines and newspapers sold by A.
(a) 7:12
(b) 5:11
(c) 3:13
(d) 4:19
(e) 5:16
Answer: (e) 5:16
Explanation: Magazines by A = 50, sold = 40% × 50 = 20. Newspapers by A = 80, unsold = 20% × 80 = 16, sold = 64. Ratio = 20:64 = 5:16.
Q48. The ratio of sports to fashion magazines published by D is 5:4. The number of sports magazines published by D is what percentage of the total number of newspapers published by A?
(a) 125%
(b) 80%
(c) 65%
(d) 75%
(e) 100%
Answer: (a) 125%
Explanation: Magazines by D = 180, sports = (5/9) × 180 = 100. Newspapers by A = 80. Percentage = (100/80) × 100 = 125%.
Q49. The total number of newspapers published by G is 4X more than that of E, and the total number of magazines published by G is X less than that of A. Then, find the total number of newspapers and magazines published by G.
(a) 250
(b) 150
(c) 190
(d) 180
(e) 215
Answer: (e) 215
Explanation: Newspapers by E = 120, by G = 120 + 4X. Magazines by A = 50, by G = 50 – X. Total for G = 120 + 4X + 50 – X = 170 + 3X. From pie chart, X = 15, so total = 170 + 45 = 215.
Q50. The total number of magazines published by B and F is 12X. Find the average number of magazines published by F and D.
(a) 110
(b) 120
(c) 90
(d) 130
(e) 125
Answer: (a) 110
Explanation: B + F = 12X = 180 (X = 15). B = 140, F = 40. Magazines by D = 180. Average = (40 + 180)/2 = 110.
Q51. A and B started a business, with their investments in the ratio of 4:5, respectively. At the end of a year, 30% of the dividend is equally distributed, and the remaining dividend is distributed in their profit share. If the difference between the dividend share of A and B is Rs 280, then find the total profit (in Rs)?
(a) 3200
(b) 3600
(c) 3800
(d) 4000
(e) 4400
Answer: (b) 3600
Explanation: Investment ratio = 4:5. Profit share: A = 30% × (1/2) + 70% × (4/9) = 135x + 280x = 415x; B = 135x + 350x = 485x. Difference = 485x – 415x = 70x = 280, so x = 4. Total profit = 900x = 3600.
Q52. The average age of (X+14) students in a class is X years. When the ages of two teachers are included, the average age increases by one year. If the sum of their age is 64 years, then find X?
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 14
(e) 16
Answer: (e) 16
Explanation: (X+14) × X + 64 = (X+16) × (X+1). Solving: 14X + 64 = 17X + 16, 3X = 48, X = 16.
Q53. A person invests a certain amount at simple interest, and by the end of the year, the amount has grown to 13 times the original investment. If the numeric value of the rate of interest per annum is three times the time, find the rate of interest.
(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 60
(e) 90
Answer: (d) 60
Explanation: Let principal = P, rate = R, time = T. Amount = 13P, so 12P = (P × R × T)/100. R = 3T, so 1200 = 3T × T. T² = 400, T = 20, R = 60.
Q54. The speed of the stream is 16 2/3% of the downstream speed of the boat, and the boat covers 120 km upstream in five hours. If the boat covers D-3 km downstream in 5.5 hours, find the value of D.
(a) 72
(b) 75
(c) 78
(d) 81
(e) 84
Answer: (b) 75
Explanation: Downstream speed = 6x, stream = x (16 2/3% = 1/6). Boat speed = 5x. Upstream: 120/(5x – x) = 5, x = 6. Downstream: (D-3)/(5x + x) = 5.5, D-3 = 198, D = 75.
Q55. Vessel X contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 5:3. In contrast, vessel Y contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 7:5. The difference between milk and water in vessel Y is equal to the water in vessel X. If the water in vessel Y is 5 liters more than the milk in vessel X, then find the total mixture in vessel X?
(a) 156
(b) 126
(c) 120
(d) 16
(e) 88
Answer: (d) 16
Explanation: Vessel X: milk = 5x, water = 3x. Vessel Y: milk = 7y, water = 5y. 7y – 5y = 3x, so 2y = 3x. 5y = 5x + 5, y = 3a, x = 2a. 5 × 3a = 5 × 2a + 5, a = 1. Total in X = 8x = 8 × 2 = 16.
Q56. The sum of the ages of X, Y, and Z is 190 years. The difference between the ages of X & Y is twice the difference between the ages of Y & Z. If the ratio of the age of Y to that of Z is 7:9, then find the minimum possible age of X (in years). Given that the ages of X < age of and Y are integers?
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 36
(d) 25
(e) Can’t be determined
Answer: (a) 30
Explanation: Y = 7x, Z = 9x, X + 7x + 9x = 190, 16x = 190 – X. X – 7x = 2(7x – 9x), X = 30. Minimum X = 30 satisfies all conditions.
Q57. The cost price of an article is Rs. X, and it is marked up by 40% the cost price, while a discount of 20% is allowed on the marked price. If the cost price is Rs 100 less and the selling price is Rs 80 more, then the profit received on the article is 60%. Find the original selling price of the article (in Rs.)?
(a) 540
(b) 720
(c) 840
(d) 560
(e) 600
Answer: (d) 560
Explanation: Cost = 100x, marked price = 140x, selling price = 112x. New cost = 100x – 100, new selling = 112x + 80, profit = 60%. (112x + 80) = 1.6(100x – 100), x = 5. Original selling price = 112 × 5 = 560.
Q58. A man invested Rs. (X-2500) on simple interest for five years and three days at a rate of 8.006% in scheme A, and he invested Rs. X on compound interest for two years and two days at a rate of 10% per annum in scheme B. If the approximate difference between the interest received from both schemes is Rs. 900, then find the value of X.
(a) 7500
(b) 8500
(c) 9500
(d) 10000
(e) 11000
Answer: (d) 10000
Explanation: Simple interest for A = (X – 2500) × 0.08 × 5 = 0.4X – 1000. Compound interest for B ≈ 0.21X. Difference = 0.4X – 1000 – 0.21X = 900, 0.19X = 1900, X = 10000.
Q59. Find the wrong number in the series: 8, 21, 41, 72, 116, 175, 257
(a) 257
(b) 116
(c) 21
(d) 175
(e) 41
Answer: (d) 175
Explanation: Differences: 13, 20, 31, 44, 61, 80. Second differences: 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 (prime numbers). Expected number: 116 + 61 = 177, not 175.
Q60. Find the wrong number in the series: 5040, 720, 120, 24, 6, 2, 8
(a) 720
(b) 120
(c) 5040
(d) 2
(e) 8
Answer: (e) 8
Explanation: Pattern: 5040 ÷ 7 = 720, 720 ÷ 6 = 120, 120 ÷ 5 = 24, 24 ÷ 4 = 6, 6 ÷ 3 = 2, 2 ÷ 2 = 1. The last number should be 1, not 8.
Directions (61-65): The information pertains to the total number of people who like three different games: Volleyball, Chess, and Cricket. The number of people who play Volleyball and the number who like only chess is 15 fewer. People who like only cricket are 28. The average number of people who like only one game is 21. People who like all the games together are 50 per cent. The ratio of people who like volleyball altogether to those who like chess and cricket altogether is 1:2. The total number of people who like chess is 96.
Q61. Find the ratio of people who like volleyball and those who like only volleyball.
Volleyball
(b) 25:24
(c) 15:16
(d) 10:9
(e) 5:4
Answer: (a) 24:25
Explanation: Only volleyball = x + 10, only chess = x – 5, only cricket = 28. Average = 21, so (x + 10 + x – 5 + 28)/3 = 21, x = 15. Chess total = 96, volleyball & chess = n, chess & cricket = 2n. n + 2n + 50 + 10 = 96, n = 12. Ratio = (2n + 28):(x + 10) = 24:25.
Q62. Find the difference between people who like only one game and those who like all the games together.
(a) 20
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 12
(e) 14
Answer: (b) 13
Explanation: Only one game = 25 + 10 + 28 = 63. All games = 50. Difference = 63 – 50 = 13.
The number of people who like volleyball is double the number of people who want it. Volleyball, who likes volleyball.
Volleyball) 125
(c) 143
(d) 110
(e) 115
Answer: (c) 143
Explanation: Volleyball & cricket = 2 × 28 = 56. Volleyball total = 25 + 12 + 50 + 56 = 143.
Q64. Find the value of x.
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 10
(e) 5
Answer: (c) 15
Explanation: From Q61, x = 15.
Q65. The ratio of males to females who like chess is 7:5. What percentage of females like chess compared to the total number of people who like all games?
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 90%
(d) 80%
(e) 25%
Answer: (a) 20%
Explanation: Females = (5/12) × 96 = 40. All games = 50. Percentage = (50 – 40)/50 × 100 = 20% less.
Q66. A is a five-consecutive-even-number series, and B is a five-consecutive-odd-number series. The third term of series A is three more than the third term of series B. If the sum of the first term of both series is 397, then find the sum of the third term of series A and B?
(a) 403
(b) 407
(c) 405
(d) 401
(e) 409
Answer: (c) 405
Explanation: A: a, a+2, a+4, a+6, a+8. B: b, b+2, b+4, b+6, b+8. a + 4 = b + 4 + 3, a = b + 3. a + b = 397, so a = 200, b = 197. Third terms: 204 + 201 = 405.
Q67. The area of a rectangle is 528 cm² more than the area of a circle. And the ratio of length to breadth of the rectangle is 26:11. If the radius of the circle is 7/11th of the breadth of the rectangle, then find the radius of the circle (in cm)?
(a) 14
(b) 10.5
(c) 28
(d) 21
(e) 7
Answer: (c) 28
Explanation: Rectangle: length = 26x, breadth = 11x, area = 286x². Circle: radius = (7/11) × 11x = 7x, area = (22/7) × 49x². 286x² – (22/7) × 49x² = 528, 132x² = 528, x = 2. Radius = 7 × 4 = 28.
Q68. Ten years ago, the average age of A and B was 30 years. Eight years hence, the ratio of the age of A to that of B will be 5:7. If the age of C five years ago was 7/9th of the age of B three years ago, then find the present age of C (in years)?
(a) 40
(b) 35
(c) 45
(d) 48
(e) 32
Answer: (a) 40
Explanation: A + B = 80 (10 years ago average = 30). A + 8 : B + 8 = 5:7. Solving, A = 5x – 8, B = 7x – 8, 12x – 16 = 80, x = 8. B three years ago = 45. C five years ago = (7/9) × 45 = 35, so present C = 40.
Q69. What is the respective ratio of savings of V and D?
I. Income of S is Rs. 25x and expenditure of S is Rs. 8y. Income of V is 96% of the income of S. Expenditure of V is 7/8th of the expenditure of S. D spends 3/5th of his income.
II. Saving of S is Rs. 14000, and the saving of V is Rs. 14800. The income of D is Rs. 2000 more than that of S.
(a) Only statement I is sufficient
(b) Only statement II is sufficient
(c) Statements I and II together are sufficient
(d) Either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient
(e) Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient
Answer: (c) Statement I and II together are sufficient
Explanation: From I: S income = 25x, V income = 24x, V expenditure = 7y, S expenditure = 8y. From II: S savings = 14000, V savings = 14800, D income = 25x + 2000. Solving: 25x – 8y = 14000, 24x – 7y = 14800, x = 1200. D income = 32000, savings = (2/5) × 32000 = 12800. Ratio = 14800:12800 = 37:32.
Q70. What is the age of R after two years? The average age of A and N is 24 years, and the ratio of the age of R to A is 2:3.
II. N is 4 years older than S, and the ratio of S’s age to R’s age is 1:2.
(a) Only statement I
(b) Only statement II
(c) Both I and II together
(d) Both statements together are not sufficient
(e) Either I or II alone
Answer: (c) Both I and II together
Explanation: From I: A + N = 48, R:A = 2:3. From II: N = S + 4, S:R = 1:2. Solving: A = 3x, R = 2x, S = x, N = x + 4. (3x + x + 4)/2 = 24, x = 11. R = 22, after 2 years = 24.
Q71. Statements: All apples are orange. Only a few oranges are fruit. Some apples are not red.
Conclusions:
I. All, fruit being an apple is a possibility.
II. Some red is orange.
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) None follows
Answer: (a) Only I follow
Explanation: It is possible, as no direct contradiction exists. II does not follow as there is no relation between red and orange.
Q72. Statements: Only trains are planes. Some cars are trains. All cars are ships.
Conclusions:
I. Some planes being ships is a possibility.
II. All trains can never be cars.
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) None follows
Answer: (b) Only II follows
Explanation: II follows as only trains are planes, so trains cannot be cars. It is not necessarily true due to restricted relations.
Q73. Statements: No cups are mugs. Only a few cups are plates. All mugs are spoons.
Conclusions:
I. No plates or spoons are a possibility.
II. All cups can never be plates.
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) None follows
Answer: (d) Both I and II follow
Explanation: It is possible, as plates and spoons have no direct relation. II follows because “only a few cups are plates” implies that some cups are not plates.
Q74. Find the odd one out.
(a) JMH
(b) TWR
(c) EHC
(d) QTO
(e) ORK
Answer: (e) ORK
Explanation: JMH (10-13-8), TWR (20-23-18), EHC (5-8-3), QTO (17-20-15) follow a pattern where differences are 3, -5. ORK (15-18-11) does not fit.
Q75. How many pairs of digits are in the number ‘83573971, each of which has as many digits between them (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them according to English Numeric Series?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) More than four
Answer: (c) Three
Explanation: Number: 83573971. Pairs where digits’ positions (forward/backward) match their numeric difference: (8,3), (3,5), (7,1). Three pairs.
Directions (76-80): Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are designated on different posts in a company, but not in the given order. The designations are CEO, CFO, CTO, CMO, VP, GM, AGM, DGM, and Manager. At most two boxes are placed above box A. Two boxes are placed between box A and box H. Box E is placed adjacent to box H. The number of boxes placed between box A and box E is two less than the number of boxes placed between box E and box G. Box B is placed just above box D, which is two places above box C. Box F is placed two places above box I.
Q76. The number of persons junior to me is the same as the number of persons senior to me
(a) G
(b) H
(c) C
(d) A
(e) F
Answer: (b) H
Explanation: Designations: CEO-C, CFO-G, CTO-H, CMO-F, VP-D, GM-A, AGM-I, DGM-B, Manager-E. I (AGM) have two juniors (B, E). H (CTO) has two seniors (C, G).
Q77. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) F is designated as Chief Technical Officer
(b) Less than four persons are between G and B
(c) A is an immediate junior to D
(d) An equal number of persons are senior and junior to E
(e) A is senior to the General Manager
Answer: (c) A is an immediate junior to D
Explanation: D (VP) is followed by A (GM). Other statements are incorrect based on the hierarchy.
Q78. Which of the following pairs of designation and person is/are correct?
(a) Assistant General Manager – I
(b) Vice President – D
(c) Chief Marketing Officer – F
(d) Manager – E
(e) All are correct
Answer: (e) All are correct
Explanation: All pairs match the hierarchy: I-AGM, D-VP, F-CMO, E-Manager.
Q79. Among which pair of persons is the first person three designations senior to the second person?
(a) G-A
(b) C-I
(c) H-F
(d) D-B
(e) B-E
Answer: (d) D-B
Explanation: D (VP) is three designations above B (DGM): VP-GM-AGM-DGM.
Q80. Who among the following is two designations junior to me?
(a) H
(b) E
(c) C
(d) C
(e) G
Answer: (b) E
Explanation: I (AGM), the two designations below are E (Manager): AGM-DGM-Manager.
Directions (81-85): 14 persons sit in two parallel rows in such a way that seven persons sit in each row. B, C, D, E, F, G, H – sit in row 1 and face north while P, Q, R, S, T, U, V – sit in row 2 and face south. The people do not sit in the given order. The people in both rows face each other.
Q81. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group; who among the following is not related to the group?
(a) U
(b) V
(c) H
(d) D
(e) R
Answer: (a) U
Explanation: Arrangement: Row 1: H-G-F-E-D-C-B, Row 2: V-T-S-R-Q-P-U. V, H, D, R form a group (facing pattern), U does not.
Q82. How many people sit between U and the one who faces F?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Answer: (b) Two
Explanation: U (position 7, Row 2) faces B. F (position 3, Row 1) is faced by S (position 3, Row 2) between U and S: 2 persons (P, Q).
Q83. What is the position of H with respect to the one who sits opposite S?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Immediately left
(c) Fourth to the right
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) Third to the right
Answer: (c) Fourth to the right
Explanation: S (position 3, Row 2) faces F (position 3, Row 1). H (position 1, Row 1) is fourth to the right of F.
Q84. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Four persons sit to the right of U
II. E sits immediately right of G
III. F is the only neighbour of H
(a) Only II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only III
(d) Only I
(e) Only I and II
Answer: (e) Only I and II
Explanation: I: True (4 persons’ right of U). II: True (E right of G). III: False (H has neighbours).
Q85. If V is related to E, P is related to B. Similarly, Q is related to whom?
(a) G
(b) D
(c) F
(d) H
(e) C
Answer: (a) G
Explanation: V faces E, P faces B, Q faces G (based on positions).
Directions (86-90): Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are placed one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order.
Q86. How many boxes are placed between Box G and Box A?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Answer: (e) Five
Explanation: Arrangement: F-A-I-E-H-B-D-G-C. Boxes between G (8th) and A (2nd): 5.
Q87. Which of the following boxes is placed at the topmost position?
(a) A
(b) G
(c) B
(d) F
(e) H
Answer: (d) F
Explanation: F is at the top (1st position).
Q88. Which box is placed exactly between Box F and Box C?
(a) B
(b) G
(c) H
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (c) H
Explanation: F (1st), C (9th), and H (5th) are exactly between them.
Q89. What is the correct position of Box E from the topmost position?
(a) Fourth
(b) Fifth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh
(e) Eighth
Answer: (a) Fourth
Explanation: E is 4th from the top.
Q90. If box E is related to box B and box H is related to box D, then in the same way, which box is related to box I?
(a) Box A
(b) Box F
(c) Box C
(d) Box H
(e) Box G
Answer: (b) Box F
Explanation: E (4th) to B (6th), H (5th) to D (7th), I (3rd) to F (1st), same pattern (two positions above).
Directions (91-95): Seven persons study in three different universities, viz. Oxford, Cambridge, and Texas. A minimum of two but not more than three persons study in the same university. Each of them likes a different colour.
Q91. Which of the following persons studies at Oxford?
(a) P, R
(b) S, V
(c) P, S, V
(d) P, Q, T
(e) None of these
Answer: (e) None of these
Explanation: Oxford: P, U; Cambridge: Q, T; Texas: S, V, R.
Q92. Who likes the white colour?
(a) Q
(b) S
(c) R
(d) V
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) R
Explanation: R likes white (Texas).
Q93. Which of the following colours does T like?
(a) Green
(b) Gold
(c) Maroon
(d) Silver
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) Silver
Explanation: T likes silver (Cambridge).
Q94. How many people study with the one who likes maroon?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Answer: (e) None of these
Explanation: S likes maroon (Texas), with two others (V, R), so the answer is 2 (not listed).
Q95. Who among the following lives just above the one who likes Green?
(a) The one who likes Violet
(b) The one who likes Red
(c) The one who likes White
(d) The one who likes Purple
(e) The one who likes Black
Answer: (d) The one who likes Purple
Explanation: Floors: 7-E-Purple, 6-B-Green, 5-C-Pink, 4-G-Violet, 3-A-White, 2-F-Red, 1-D-Black. Above Green (B, 6th) is E (Purple).
Q96. Which of the following floors does C live on?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 7
Answer: (c) 5
Explanation: C lives on the 5th floor (Pink).
Q97. How many floors are there between the one who likes Red and the one who likes Black?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Answer: (e) None
Explanation: Red (2nd), Black (1st), no floors between them.
Q98. Who among the following likes Violet?
(a) F
(b) A
(c) C
(d) G
(e) B
Answer: (d) G
Explanation: G likes Violet (4th floor).
Q99. Who among the following lives just above the one who likes Green?
(a) The one who likes Violet
(b) The one who likes Red
(c) The one who likes White
(d) The one who likes Purple
(e) The one who likes Black
Answer: (d) The one who likes Purple
Explanation: Above Green (6th) is Purple (7th).
Q100. Which of the following statements is true?
I. G does not live on a prime-numbered floor
II. A lives above the one who likes red
III. At least two floors’ gap between G and F
(a) Only III
(b) Both I and II
(c) Only I
(d) Both II and III
(e) None is true
Answer: (b) Both I and II
Explanation: I: G on 4th (not prime). II: A (3rd) above Red (2nd). III: False (G-4th, F-2nd, one floor gap).
This article covers all questions from the SBI PO Prelims 2024-25 memory-based paper (1st shift, March 8, 2025), providing accurate answers and clear explanations to aid your preparation. Use this resource to enhance your understanding and excel in your banking exams.
