This article provides a comprehensive guide to the SBI PO Prelims 2024-25 Memory-Based Paper from the 8th March 2025, 1st shift. Designed for aspirants preparing for competitive banking exams, it includes all multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with detailed answers and explanations. By studying this Previous Year Exam Paper, candidates can gain insights into question patterns, improve time management, and boost their preparation for the SBI PO exam.
Question: The company’s sudden announcement of layoffs was seen as ___ by many employees, who did not feel the decision had been ___ from the beginning.
(a) abrupt, predetermined
(b) strategic, unexpected
(c) transparent, concealed
(d) calculated, improvised
(e) reckless, justified
Answer: (e) reckless, justified
Explanation: The sentence implies a negative perception of the layoff announcement. “Reckless” fits as it suggests a careless decision, and “justified” indicates employees felt the decision lacked proper reasoning. Other options, such as “abrupt, predetermined” or “strategic, unexpected,” do not align logically with the negative tone.
Question: The government’s response to the economic crisis was widely criticized as ___ and only served to ___ public frustration.
(a) deliberate, intensify
(b) prudent, alleviate
(c) swift, suppress
(d) ineffectual, exacerbate
(e) measured, pacify
Answer: (d) ineffectual, exacerbate
Explanation: The criticism implies the response was ineffective (“ineffectual”) and worsened (“exacerbate”) the situation. Options like “prudent, alleviate” suggest a positive response, which contradicts the criticism, while “deliberate, intensify” does not fit the context of failure.
Question: The athlete’s return to the field after a year-long injury was both ___ and ___ as fans wondered if he could regain his former strength.
(a) unexpected, reassuring
(b) anticipated, uncertain
(c) disappointing, celebrated
(d) inevitable, dismissed
(e) predictable, unnoticed
Answer: (b) anticipated, uncertain
Explanation: A year-long injury makes the return expected (“anticipated”), but doubts about strength recovery create uncertainty (“uncertain”). Options like “unexpected, reassuring” or “disappointing, celebrated” are contradictory or irrelevant to the context.
Question: The whistleblower’s testimony was so ___ that it left lawmakers scrambling to ___ the allegations before they could gain further traction.
(a) uninformative, dismiss
(b) baseless, ignore
(c) damning, counter
(d) neutral, endorse
(e) unfounded, deny
Answer: (c) damning, counter
Explanation: A strong testimony would be “damning” (highly critical), prompting lawmakers to “counter” (oppose) the allegations. Options like “uninformative, dismiss” or “neutral, endorse” do not convey the urgency or negative impact described.
Question: The new scientific discovery was hailed as ___ but also met with skepticism, as researchers sought to ___ the results through further experiments.
(a) revolutionary, replicate
(b) trivial, ignore
(c) debatable, obscure
(d) conclusive, pacify
(e) marginal, amplify
Answer: (a) revolutionary, replicate
Explanation: A significant discovery is “revolutionary,” and skepticism leads to attempts to “replicate” results for validation. Options like “trivial, ignore” or “conclusive, pacify” do not fit the context of a significant discovery requiring verification.
Question: The pack of wolves (A)/was seen roaming (B)/ near the deserted village (C)/ at dawn. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The subject “pack” is singular, so the verb should be “was” instead of “were.” The error is in part (B).
Question: She narrowly escaped (A)/ to fall into the (B)/ deep trench (C)/ near the cliff’s edge. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The correct phrase is “falling into” (gerund after “escaped”), not “to fall into.” The error is in part (B).
Question: Despite being warned (A)/ about the storm, he insisted (B)/ to go for a (C)/ late-night drive. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (c) C
Explanation: The correct structure after “insisted” is “on going,” not “to go.” The error is in part (C).
Question: He pretended (A)/ that he knows nothing (B)/ about the secret plan (C)/ discussed in the meeting. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The verb “knows” should be in the past tense (“knew”) to match the past tense of “pretended.” The error is in part (B).
Question: Not only did he (A)/ ignore the warnings, (B)/ but he also (C)/ mocked the elders. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (a) A
Explanation: In “not only…but also” constructions, the subject follows “not only,” so it should be “Not only did he.” The error is in part (A).
Question: She found (A)/ an unique solution (B)/ to the complex (C)/ logistical problem. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: “Unique” starts with a consonant sound, so the article should be “a,” not “an.” The error is in part (B).
Question: The rebels planned (A)/ to blow out (B)/ the bridge before (C)/ reinforcements arrived. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The correct phrase is “blow up” (destroy), not “blow out.” The error is in part (B).
Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
(I) The legalization of online betting in the United States has influenced global betting trends, including in Europe.
(II) Traditional casinos are becoming obsolete due to the growing popularity of online gambling platforms.
(III) The integration of technology, such as AI and blockchain, has improved security in online gambling.
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Answer: (d) Both (I) and (III)
Explanation: The passage confirms (I) with the global ripple effect and (III) with AI and blockchain enhancing security. (II) This is incorrect as the passage does not state that traditional casinos are obsolete.
Question: Which of the following is a concern regarding online betting, based on the passage?
(a) Traditional casinos will completely disappear in the near future.
(b) Online gambling companies may manipulate algorithms to increase losses.
(c) The increased engagement in sports may create biased betting outcomes.
(d) A lack of proper financial education may lead to severe monetary losses for new bettors.
(e) Governments will completely ban online betting again due to its risks.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The passage highlights financial losses due to a lack of financial literacy among new bettors. The passage does not support other options.
Question: Identify the INCORRECT statement based on the passage.
(a) The U.S. legalization of online betting has influenced global gambling trends, impacting regulations and betting dynamics in other countries.
(b) Online gambling companies have successfully eliminated gambling addiction through AI-driven detection and prevention systems.
(c) The passage highlights that gamification in digital betting can make gambling more addictive by obscuring its long-term consequences.
(d) Both A and B
(e) All are incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The passage does not mention AI eliminating gambling addiction, making (b) incorrect. (a) and (c) are supported by the passage.
Question: Identify the correct synonym for “engage” based on its usage in the passage.
(a) Capture
(b) Captivate
(c) Emerge
(d) Replace
(e) Evolve
Answer: (b) Captivate
Explanation: “Engage” in the passage means to attract or involve, and “captivate” (to hold attention) is the closest synonym.
Question: Based on the passage, how has the U.S. decision to legalize online betting impacted global gambling trends?
(a) It has primarily benefited U.S. sports leagues, while the global gambling industry remains unaffected due to differing regulatory structures.
(b) The passage suggests that U.S. legalization has caused a worldwide increase in problem gambling, overwhelming responsible gambling initiatives.
(c) The ripple effect of this decision has influenced European markets by increasing sports engagement and enhancing revenue streams for clubs and leagues.
(d) The passage implies that U.S. legalization has had minimal influence outside its borders, as most online gambling companies operate independently of U.S. laws.
(e) The global sports industry has opposed this change, fearing that the rise of online betting could reduce traditional in-person viewership.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The passage states that the legalization led to increased sports engagement and revenue in Europe, supporting (c).
Question: What potential risk associated with online betting does the passage emphasize the most?
(a) The complete lack of gambling regulations worldwide has allowed fraudulent activities to flourish.
(b) The psychological and financial dangers of unchecked digital gambling, particularly among young and inexperienced users.
(c) The negative impact of online betting on professional sports, leading to a decline in revenue and viewership.
(d) The erosion of traditional casino culture due to the increasing preference for digital betting platforms.
(e) The long-term economic instability of online gambling companies due to increasing competition and market saturation.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes addictive behaviors and financial losses among youth as primary risks.
Question: Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to the opposite of “vice” as used in the passage?
(a) Corruption
(b) Virtue
(c) Immorality
(d) Sin
(e) Depravity
Answer: (b) Virtue
Explanation: “Vice” refers to a harmful habit; its opposite is “virtue” (moral excellence). Other options are synonyms or related to vice.
Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
(I) The reversal of online betting laws in the U.S. has only influenced gambling trends in the country itself.
(II) The integration of live-streaming within sports betting platforms has transformed how users engage with betting.
(III) Online betting platforms integrate live-streaming services to enhance real-time engagement.
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) All (I), (II), and (III)
(e) Only (I)
Answer: (c) Both (II) and (III)
Explanation: (II) and (III) are supported by the passage’s mention of live-streaming enhancing engagement. (I) is incorrect due to the global ripple effect.
Question: Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to “launching” as used in the passage?
(a) Terminating
(b) Initiating
(c) Encouraging
(d) Preponing
(e) Withdrawing
Answer: (b) Initiating
Explanation: “Launching” means starting something new, and “initiating” is the closest synonym. Other options do not fit.
Question: The ancient temple torrential (A) under the relentless force of the majestic (B) rain, leaving only fragments of its once crumbled (C) structure scattered across the valley.
(a) ACB
(b) CAB
(c) BAC
(d) BCA
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (b) CAB
Explanation: The correct sentence is: “The ancient temple crumbled (C) under the relentless force of the torrential (A) rain, leaving only fragments of its once majestic (B) structure.” This order ensures logical flow.
Question: The commander’s pivotal (A) to launch the offensive (B) at dawn cost the army a reluctance (C) strategic advantage in the battle.
(a) CBA
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) CAB
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (a) CBA
Explanation: The correct sentence is: “The commander’s reluctance (C) to launch the offensive (B) at dawn cost the army a pivotal (A) strategic advantage.” This order makes the sentence coherent.
Question: The detective’s astute (A) observations led to a crucial (B) clue that unraveled (C) the mystery.
(a) CAB
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) BCA
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: The sentence is already correct and coherent.
Question: The leader’s resilient (A) attitude in adversity (B) motivated his team to face challenges with fearless (C) determination.
(a) BCA
(b) CAB
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (b) CAB
Explanation: The correct sentence is: “The leader’s attitude in adversity (B) was resilient (A) and motivated his team to face challenges with fearless (C) determination.”
Question: Which of the following is the correct sequence after rearrangement?
(a) FABCED
(b) FBADCE
(c) BAECDF
(d) FADCEB
(e) BCDEAF
Answer: (b) FBADCE
Explanation: The coherent paragraph starts with (F) introducing the water shortage, followed by (B) women’s actions, (A) results, (D) government recognition, (C) new policies, and (E) broader impact.
Question: Which of the following is the FIRST statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E
Answer: (d) F
Explanation: (F) introduces the problem, making it the first statement in the sequence FBADCE.
Question: Which of the following is the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (c) C
Explanation: In the sequence FBADCE, (C) is the fifth statement.
Question: Which of the following is the THIRD statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (a) A
Explanation: In the sequence FBADCE, (A) is the third statement.
Question: Which of the following is the LAST statement after rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (e) E
Explanation: In the sequence FBADCE, (E) concludes the paragraph.
Question: Match phrases to form meaningful sentences.
(a) A-D
(b) B-D
(c) C-F
(d) A-E
(e) Both A-D and C-F
Answer: (e) Both A-D and C-F
Explanation: A-D forms: “Struggling to navigate the stormy seas, they refused to abandon hope.” C-F forms: “Enduring the relentless hardships, he emerged stronger than before.” Both are correct.
Question: Match phrases to form meaningful sentences.
(a) A-D
(b) A-E
(c) C-F
(d) B-E
(e) Both A-D and B-E
Answer: (d) B-E
Explanation: B-E forms: “The sudden betrayal of his closest ally shattered his faith in loyalty.” Other pairs do not form logical sentences.
Question: Black pepper, often referred to as the “king of spices,” ___ an essential component of cuisines worldwide.
(a) remains
(b) signifies
(c) denotes
(d) embodies
(e) constitutes
Answer: (a) remains
Explanation: “Remains” indicates black pepper’s continued importance, fitting the present context.
Question: It ___ originally cultivated in South Asia, particularly in India.
(a) is
(b) has
(c) had been
(d) was being
(e) was
Answer: (e) was
Explanation: “Was” reflects the past cultivation of black pepper, aligning with the historical context.
Question: The distinctive aroma of black pepper ___ from its volatile oils.
(a) emerge
(b) derives
(c) originates
(d) stems
(e) exudes
Answer: (c) originates
Explanation: “Originates” correctly indicates the source of the aroma, matching the sentence’s meaning.
Question: Although black pepper ___ widely used today…
(a) is
(b) was
(c) has been
(d) had been
(e) will be
Answer: (a) is
Explanation: “Is” reflects the current widespread use of black pepper.
Question: Historical records indicate that it ___ once considered a luxury item.
(a) has
(b) was
(c) had
(d) is
(e) are
Answer: (b) was
Explanation: “Was” indicates the past perception of black pepper as a luxury.
Question: Grinding ___ its essential oils to dissipate over time.
(a) causes
(b) had caused
(c) has caused
(d) cause
(e) will cause
Answer: (a) causes
Explanation: “Causes” expresses a general fact about grinding’s effect on oils.
Question: Despite the heavy storm, the fishermen decided to set sail early in the morning.
(a) Despite the heavy storm
(b) In spite of the heavy storm
(c) Despite the heavy storm
(d) Although of the heavy storm
(e) No correction required
Answer: (a) Despite the heavy storm
Explanation: “Despite” does not require “of,” making (a) the correct replacement.
Question: Had he known about the crisis, he would have helped his colleagues before leaving.
(a) He would have helped
(b) he would helped
(c) He will help
(d) He would have helped
(e) No correction required
Answer: (d) he would have helped
Explanation: The third conditional requires “would have helped” for a past hypothetical situation.
Question: In A, the ratio of flats occupied by female workers in the public sector is 120, which is 20% more than the flats occupied by males and the private sector. Find the sum of flats occupied by male in public sector and female in private industry.
(a) 80
(b) 90
(c) 100
(d) 150
(e) 120
Answer: (a) 80
Explanation: Total occupied flats in A = 300, vacant = 200, public sector = 200, private sector = 100. Female public sector = 120, so male public sector = 200 – 120 = 80. Private sector male = 100 (since 120 is 20% more than private sector total), so private sector female = 0. Sum = 80 + 0 = 80.
Question: In building F, the ratio of occupied to vacant flats is the same as that of building B, and flats occupied by public sector employees are the average of private sector flats in A and B. If vacant flats in F are 2/5th of public sector flats, find private sector flats in F.
(a) 25
(b) 39
(c) 24
(d) 50
(e) 20
Answer: (a) 25
Explanation: Building B’s occupied: vacant ratio = 3:1. Private sector flats in A = 100, B = 150, so the average public sector in F = 125. Vacant flats in F = 2/5 × 125 = 50. Total occupied = 3 × 50 = 150. Private sector in F = 150 – 125 = 25.
Question: Find the ratio of vacant flats in C and occupied flats in B together to flats occupied by private employees in C and public sector employees in D.
(a) 5:6
(b) 17:11
(c) 10:11
(d) 1:1
(e) 12:11
Answer: (b) 17:11
Explanation: Vacant flats in C = 120, occupied in B = 390, total = 510. Private in C = 180, public in D = 150, total = 330. Ratio = 510:330 = 17:11.
Question: In D, 20% of public sector employees have a car, and the rest have bikes; 40% of private sector employees have bikes, and the rest have cars. Find the difference between public sector employees with bikes and private sector employees with vehicles.
(a) 50
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 125
(e) 120
Answer: (b) 75
Explanation: Public sector in D = 150, cars = 20% = 30, bikes = 120. Private sector = 75, bikes = 40% = 30, cars = 45. Difference = 120 – 45 = 75.
Question: If the number of flats per floor is 2.5x and each floor has the same number of flats, find the sum of the number of floors in C and D.
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) 12
Answer: (d) 11
Explanation: Flats per floor = 2.5 × 40 = 100. Total flats in C = 600, floors = 600/100 = 6. Total flats in D = 500, floors = 500/100 = 5. Sum = 6 + 5 = 11.
Question: The total number of newspapers published by F is 25% more than that of C, and magazines by B and F are in the ratio 7:4. Find the difference between the number of magazines and newspapers published by F.
(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 35
(d) 30
(e) 20
Answer: (b) 45
Explanation: Newspapers by C = 100, F = 125. Total newspapers = 400. Magazines by B = 140, F = 80 (7:4 ratio). Difference = 125 – 80 = 45.
Question: 40% of magazines published by A are sold, and 20% of newspapers by A are unsold. Find the ratio of magazines to newspapers sold by A.
(a) 7:12
(b) 5:11
(c) 3:13
(d) 4:19
(e) 5:16
Answer: (e) 5:16
Explanation: Magazines by A = 50, sold = 40% = 20. Newspapers = 80, sold = 80% = 64. Ratio = 20:64 = 5:16.
Question: The ratio of sports to fashion magazines by D is 5:4. The number of sports magazines by D is what percentage of newspapers by A?
(a) 125%
(b) 80%
(c) 65%
(d) 75%
(e) 100%
Answer: (a) 125%
Explanation: Magazines by D = 180, sports = 5/9 × 180 = 100. Newspapers by A = 80. Percentage = 100/80 × 100 = 125%.
Question: Newspapers by G are 4X more than E, and magazines by G are X less than A. Find the total newspapers and magazines by G.
(a) 250
(b) 150
(c) 190
(d) 180
(e) 215
Answer: (e) 215
Explanation: Newspapers by E = 120, G = 4 × 15 + 120 = 180. Magazines by A = 50, G = 50 – 15 = 35. Total = 180 + 35 = 215.
Question: Magazines by B and F together = 12X. Find the average number of magazines by F and D.
(a) 110
(b) 120
(c) 90
(d) 130
(e) 125
Answer: (a) 110
Explanation: Magazines by B = 140, F = 40 (12 × 15 – 140). Magazines by D = 180. Average = (40 + 180)/2 = 110.
Question: A and B’s investments are in the ratio 4:5. 30% of the dividend is equally distributed, and the rest is per profit share. If the dividend difference is Rs 280, find the total profit.
(a) 3200
(b) 3600
(c) 3800
(d) 4000
(e) 4400
Answer: (b) 3600
Explanation: Profit ratio = 4:5. Let total profit = 900x. A’s share = 135x + 280x = 415x, B’s = 135x + 350x = 485x. Difference = 485x – 415x = 280, x = 4. Total profit = 900 × 4 = 3600.
Question: The average age of (X+14) students is X years. Including two teachers, the average increases by 1. If the sum of the teachers’ ages is 64, find X.
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 14
(e) 16
Answer: (e) 16
Explanation: (X+14)X + 64 = (X+16)(X+1). Solving, 14X + 64 = 17X + 16, 3X = 48, X = 16.
Question: An amount becomes 13 times itself in a year at simple interest, with the rate thrice the time. Find the rate.
(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 60
(e) 90
Answer: (d) 60
Explanation: Let principal = P, time = T, rate = 3T. 12P = P × 3T × T/100, 1200 = 3T², T = 20, rate = 3 × 20 = 60.
Question: The stream speed is 16⅔% % of the downstream speed. The boat covers 120 km upstream in 5 hours. If it covers D-3 km downstream and D+30 km at still water speed in 5.5 hours, find D.
(a) 55
(b) 75
(c) 80
(d) 60
(e) 45
Answer: (b) 75
Explanation: Downstream speed = 6x, stream = x, still water = 5x. Upstream: 120/(5x-x) = 5, x = 6. Still water = 30 km/hr. (D-3)/36 + (D+30)/30 = 5.5, 11D = 825, D = 75.
Question: Vessel X has milk: water = 5:3, Y has 7:5. Milk-water difference in Y equals water in X. Water in Y is 5 liters more than milk in X. Find the total mixture in X.
(a) 156
(b) 126
(c) 120
(d) 16
(e) 88
Answer: (d) 16
Explanation: Let milk, water in X = 5x, 3x; in Y = 7y, 5y. 7y – 5y = 3x, y:x = 3:2. 5y = 5x + 5, 15a – 10a = 5, a = 1. Total in X = 8 × 2 = 16 liters.
Question: Sum of ages of X, Y, Z = 190. X-Y = 2(Z-Y), Y: Z = 7:9, X < Y. Find the minimum possible age of X.
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 36
(d) 25
(e) Can’t be determined
Answer: (a) 30
Explanation: Y = 7x, Z = 9x. X + 7x + 9x = 190, 16x = 190 – X. Only X = 30 satisfies X < Y (84).
Question: Cost price = X, marked up 40%, discount 20%. If the cost price is Rs 100 less and the selling price is Rs 80 more, the profit is 60%. Find the original selling price.
(a) 540
(b) 720
(c) 840
(d) 560
(e) 600
Answer: (d) 560
Explanation: X = 100x, MP = 140x, SP = 112x. New CP = 100x – 100, SP = 112x + 80. 1.6(100x – 100) = 112x + 80, x = 5. SP = 112 × 5 = 560.
Question: (X-2500) at 8.006% SI for 5 years 3 days, X at 10% CI for 2 years 2 days. Difference in interest = Rs 900. Find the amount in scheme A.
(a) 5000
(b) 5500
(c) 7840
(d) 7500
(e) 5600
Answer: (d) 7500
Explanation: SI = (X-2500) × 0.4, CI ≈ 0.21X. 0.4X – 1000 – 0.21X = 900, 0.19X = 1900, X = 10000. Scheme A = 10000 – 2500 = 7500.
Question: 8, 21, 41, 72, 116, 175, 257. Find the wrong number.
(a) 257
(b) 116
(c) 21
(d) 175
(e) 41
Answer: (d) 175
Explanation: Differences: 13, 20, 31, 44, 61, 80 (+7, +11, +13, +17, +19). One hundred seventy-five should be 177 (116 + 61).
Question: 5040, 720, 120, 24, 6, 2, 1. Find the wrong number.
(a) 720
(b) 120
(c) 5040
(d) 2
(e) 1
Answer: (e) 1
Explanation: Series: 5040 ÷ 7 = 720, ÷ 6 = 120, ÷ 5 = 24, ÷ 4 = 6, ÷ 3 = 2, ÷ 2 = 1. Last term should be 2 ÷ 2 = 1, but 1 is correct; check the series, one should be 0.5 (2 ÷ 4).
Question: Find the ratio of people who like only cricket and chess together to people who want only volleyball.
(a) 24:25
(b) 25:24
(c) 15:16
(d) 10:9
(e) 5:4
Answer: (a) 24:25
Explanation: Only volleyball = 25, only chess = 10, only cricket = 28. Chess and cricket = 24. Ratio = 24:25.
Question: Find the difference between people who like only one game and those who want all games together.
(a) 20
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 12
(e) 14
Answer: (b) 13
Explanation: Only one game = 25 + 10 + 28 = 63. All games = 50. Difference = 63 – 50 = 13.
Question: People who like only volleyball and cricket together are double those who want only cricket. Find people who like volleyball.
(a) 120
(b) 125
(c) 143
(d) 110
(e) 115
Answer: (c) 143
Explanation: Only cricket = 28, volleyball and cricket = 56. Volleyball = 25 + 12 + 50 + 56 = 143.
Question: Find the value of x.
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 10
(e) 5
Answer: (c) 15
Explanation: Only volleyball = x + 10 = 25, x = 15.
Question: If male: female chess likers = 7:5, find the percentage by which females’ liking of chess is more/less than that of all games.
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 90%
(d) 80%
(e) 25%
Answer: (a) 20%
Explanation: Chess females = 5/12 × 96 = 40. All games = 50. Percentage = (50-40)/50 × 100 = 20% less.
Question: A is five consecutive even numbers, B is five successive odd numbers. A’s third term is three more than B’s. Sum of first terms = 397. Find the sum of the third terms.
(a) 403
(b) 407
(c) 405
(d) 401
(e) 409
Answer: (c) 405
Explanation: A: a, a+2, a+4; B: b, b+2, b+4. a+4 – (b+4) = 3, a – b = 3. a + b = 397, a = 200, b = 197. Third terms: 204 + 201 = 405.
Question: A rectangle’s area is 528 cm² more than a circle’s. Length: breadth = 26:11, circle’s radius = 7/11 of breadth. Find radius.
(a) 14
(b) 10.5
(c) 28
(d) 21
(e) 7
Answer: (c) 28
Explanation: Length = 26x, breadth = 11x, radius = 7x. 26x × 11x – 22/7 × 49x² = 528, 132x = 528, x = 4. Radius = 7 × 4 = 28 cm.
Question: Ten years ago, A and B’s average age was 30. Eight years hence, A: B = 5:7. C’s age five years ago was 7/9 of B’s three years ago. Find C’s present age.
(a) 40
(b) 35
(c) 45
(d) 48
(e) 32
Answer: (a) 40
Explanation: A + B = 80. A+8:B+8 = 5:7, 12x = 96, x = 8. B = 56, three years ago = 53. C = 53 × 7/9 + 5 = 40.
Question: What is the ratio of savings of V and D?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Either I or II
(e) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation: From I: V’s income = 24x, S = 25x, V’s expenditure = 7y, S = 8y. From II: S saves 14000, V saves 14800, D’s income = S + 2000. Solving, V:D savings = 37:32.
Question: What is R’s age after two years?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Both together are not sufficient
(e) Either I or II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation: From I: A + N = 48, R:A = 2:3. From II: N = S + 4, S:R = 1:2. Solving, R = 22, after 2 years = 24.
Question: All apples are orange. Only a few oranges are fruit. Some apples are not red. Conclusions: I. All ,fruit being an ,apple is a possibility. II. Some red is orange.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Either I or II
(d) Both I and II
(e) None follows
Answer: (a) Only I
Explanation: It is possible, as no direct contradiction exists. II does not follow due to no relation between red and orange.
Question: Only trains are planes. Some cars are trains. All vehicles are ships. Conclusions: I. Some planes being ships is a possibility. II. All trains can never be cars.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Either I or II
(d) Both I and II
(e) None follows
Answer: (b) Only II
Explanation: II follows as some trains (planes) are not cars. I do not follow due to restricted plane relations.
Question: No cups are mugs. Only a few cups are plates. All mugs are spoons. Conclusions: I. No plates or spoons are a possibility. II. All cups can never be plates.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Either I or II
(d) Both I and II
(e) None follows
Answer: (d) Both I and II
Explanation: It is possible as no direct relation exists. II follows due to “only a few” implying some cups are not plates.
Question: Find the odd one out: JMH, TWR, EHC, QTO, ORK.
(a) JMH
(b) TWR
(c) EHC
(d) QTO
(e) ORK
Answer: (e) ORK
Explanation: Pattern: First letter +3, second -2, third +4 (e.g., J+3=M, M-2=K, H+4=L). ORK (O+3=R, R-2=P, K+4=O) does not fit.
Question: How many pairs of digits in 83573971 have as many digits between them as their difference in the English numeric series?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) More than four
Answer: (c) Three
Explanation: Pairs: (8,5) difference 3 with three digits between, (3,7) difference 4 with four digits, (7,1) difference 6 with six digits. Three pairs.
Question: The number of persons junior to I is the same as the number senior to ___.
(a) G
(b) H
(c) C
(d) A
(e) F
Answer: (b) H
Explanation: Order: C, G, H, F, D, A, I, B, E. Juniors to I = 2, seniors to H = 2.
Question: Which statement is correct?
(a) F is CTO
(b) Less than four between G and B
(c) A is an immediate junior to D
(d) Equal senior and junior to E
(e) A is senior to GM
Answer: (c) A is an immediate junior to D
Explanation: Order: C, G, H, F, D, A, I, B, E. D (VP) is followed by A (GM).
Question: Which pair is correct?
(a) AGM – I
(b) VP – D
(c) CMO – F
(d) Manager – E
(e) All are correct
Answer: (e) All are correct
Explanation: All pairs match the order: C (CEO), G (CFO), H (CTO), F (CMO), D (VP), A (GM), I (AGM), B (DGM), E (Manager).
Question: Which pair has the first person’s three designations senior to the second?
(a) G-A
(b) C-I
(c) H-F
(d) D-B
(e) B-E
Answer: (d) D-B
Explanation: D (5th) is three positions senior to B (8th).
Question: Who is two designations junior to I?
(a) H
(b) E
(c) A
(d) C
(e) G
Answer: (b) E
Explanation: I (7th), two juniors are E (9th).
Question: Four of the following are similar; which one is not related?
(a) U
(b) V
(c) H
(d) D
(e) R
Answer: (a) U
Explanation: Arrangement: Row 1: F, H, E, G, D, C, B; Row 2: V, S, Q, R, U, T, P. U does not share the group’s pattern.
Question: How many persons sit between U and the one who faces F?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Answer: (b) Two
Explanation: U (5th in Row 2), F (1st in Row 1), faces V. Between U and V: S, Q (2 persons).
Question: What is H’s position with respect to the one opposite S?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Immediately left
(c) Fourth to the right
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) Third to the right
Answer: (c) Fourth to the right
Explanation: S (2nd in Row 2), opposite H (2nd in Row 1). H is fourth to the right of D (opposite S).
Question: Which statement is true?
I. Four persons sit to the right of U
II. E sits immediately right of G
III. F is the only neighbor of H
(a) Only II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only III
(d) Only I
(e) Only I and II
Answer: (e) Only I and II
Explanation: I: True (T, P to the right of U). II: True (E right of G). III: False (H has F, E as neighbors).
Question: If V is related to E, P to B, then Q is related to whom?
(a) G
(b) D
(c) F
(d) H
(e) C
Answer: (a) G
Explanation: Pattern: V faces E, P faces B. Q faces G.
Question: How many boxes are between G and A?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Answer: (e) Five
Explanation: Order: F, A, I, E, H, B, D, G, C. Five boxes (I, E, H, B, D) between A and G.
Question: Which box is at the topmost position?
(a) A
(b) G
(c) B
(d) F
(e) H
Answer: (d) F
Explanation: F is at the top.
Question: Which box is exactly between F and C?
(a) B
(b) G
(c) H
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (c) H
Explanation: Between F (1st) and C (9th): H (5th).
Question: What is E’s position from the topmost?
(a) Fourth
(b) Fifth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh
(e) Eighth
Answer: (a) Fourth
Explanation: E is 4th from the top.
Question: If E is related to B, H to D, then which box is related to I?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) C
(d) H
(e) G
Answer: (b) F
Explanation: Pattern: E (4th) to B (6th), H (5th) to D (7th). I (3rd) to F (1st).
Question: Which persons study in Oxford?
(a) P, R
(b) S, V
(c) P, S, V
(d) P, Q, T
(e) None of these
Answer: (e) None of these
Explanation: Oxford: P, U. None of the options match.
Question: Who likes white color?
(a) Q
(b) S
(c) R
(d) V
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) R
Explanation: R likes white.
Question: Which color does T like?
(a) Green
(b) Gold
(c) Maroon
(d) Silver
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) Silver
Explanation: T likes silver.
Question: Which university does S study in?
(a) Oxford
(b) Cambridge
(c) Texas
(d) Either Oxford or Cambridge
(e) Either Cambridge or Texas
Answer: (c) Texas
Explanation: S studies in Texas.
Question: How many people like silver?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) One
Explanation: Only T likes silver.
Analyzing Previous Year Exam Papers like this SBI PO Prelims 2024-25 Memory-Based Paper helps candidates understand the exam’s structure, question types, and difficulty level. It enhances problem-solving skills, time management, and confidence. Regular practice with such papers is crucial for success in competitive exams, such as the SBI PO.
By thoroughly reviewing these MCQs, explanations, and strategies, aspirants can strengthen their preparation and excel in their upcoming exams. Keep practicing and stay focused!
The SSC CPO Apply Online 2025 notification is a significant opportunity for candidates seeking a…
Tackling the RBI Grade B Phase 1 exam requires a good grasp of reasoning, English…
सरकारी नौकरी की दुनिया में SSC, रेलवे और बैंकिंग: कौन-सी है बेस्ट आपके लिए? Government…
PNB Bank Recruitment 2025 Overview नमस्कार दोस्तों! अगर आप बैंक सेक्टर में एक शानदार करियर…
Primary Teacher Recruitment 2025 नमस्कार दोस्तों! अगर आप education sector में career बनाना चाहते हैं,…
Namaskar Dosto! अगर आप सरकारी नौकरी का इंतजार कर रहे थे तो 2025 आपके लिए…