SBI PO Prelims 2024-25 Memory Based Paper: MCQ Questions with Answers and Explanations

This article provides a comprehensive guide to the SBI PO Prelims 2024-25 Memory Based Paper from the 8th March 2025, 1st shift. Designed for aspirants preparing for competitive banking exams, it includes all multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with detailed answers and explanations. By studying this Previous Year Exam Paper, candidates can gain insights into question patterns, improve time management, and boost their preparation for the SBI PO exam. Below, each question is presented line by line, categorized by sections, with clear explanations to help you understand the reasoning behind the correct answers.

English Language Section

Q1. Fill in the Blanks

Question: The company’s sudden announcement of layoffs was seen as ___ by many employees, who did not feel the decision had been ___ from the beginning.
(a) abrupt, predetermined
(b) strategic, unexpected
(c) transparent, concealed
(d) calculated, improvised
(e) reckless, justified
Answer: (e) reckless, justified
Explanation: The sentence implies a negative perception of the layoff announcement. “Reckless” fits as it suggests a careless decision, and “justified” indicates employees felt the decision lacked proper reasoning. Other options like “abrupt, predetermined” or “strategic, unexpected” do not align logically with the negative tone.

Q2. Fill in the Blanks

Question: The government’s response to the economic crisis was widely criticized as ___ and only served to ___ public frustration.
(a) deliberate, intensify
(b) prudent, alleviate
(c) swift, suppress
(d) ineffectual, exacerbate
(e) measured, pacify
Answer: (d) ineffectual, exacerbate
Explanation: The criticism implies the response was ineffective (“ineffectual”) and worsened (“exacerbate”) the situation. Options like “prudent, alleviate” suggest a positive response, which contradicts the criticism, while “deliberate, intensify” does not fit the context of failure.

Q3. Fill in the Blanks

Question: The athlete’s return to the field after a year-long injury was both ___ and ___ as fans wondered if he could regain his former strength.
(a) unexpected, reassuring
(b) anticipated, uncertain
(c) disappointing, celebrated
(d) inevitable, dismissed
(e) predictable, unnoticed
Answer: (b) anticipated, uncertain
Explanation: A year-long injury makes the return expected (“anticipated”), but doubts about strength recovery create uncertainty (“uncertain”). Options like “unexpected, reassuring” or “disappointing, celebrated” are contradictory or irrelevant to the context.

Q4. Fill in the Blanks

Question: The whistleblower’s testimony was so ___ that it left lawmakers scrambling to ___ the allegations before they could gain further traction.
(a) uninformative, dismiss
(b) baseless, ignore
(c) damning, counter
(d) neutral, endorse
(e) unfounded, deny
Answer: (c) damning, counter
Explanation: A strong testimony would be “damning” (highly critical), prompting lawmakers to “counter” (oppose) the allegations. Options like “uninformative, dismiss” or “neutral, endorse” do not convey the urgency or negative impact described.

Q5. Fill in the Blanks

Question: The new scientific discovery was hailed as ___ but also met with skepticism, as researchers sought to ___ the results through further experiments.
(a) revolutionary, replicate
(b) trivial, ignore
(c) debatable, obscure
(d) conclusive, pacify
(e) marginal, amplify
Answer: (a) revolutionary, replicate
Explanation: A significant discovery is “revolutionary,” and skepticism leads to attempts to “replicate” results for validation. Options like “trivial, ignore” or “conclusive, pacify” do not fit the context of a major discovery requiring verification.

Q6. Error Detection

Question: The pack of wolves (A)/ were seen roaming (B)/ near the deserted village (C)/ at dawn. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The subject “pack” is singular, so the verb should be “was” instead of “were.” The error is in part (B).

Q7. Error Detection

Question: She narrowly escaped (A)/ to fall into the (B)/ deep trench (C)/ near the cliff’s edge. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The correct phrase is “falling into” (gerund after “escaped”), not “to fall into.” The error is in part (B).

Q8. Error Detection

Question: Despite being warned (A)/ about the storm, he insisted (B)/ to go for a (C)/ late-night drive. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (c) C
Explanation: The correct structure after “insisted” is “on going,” not “to go.” The error is in part (C).

Q9. Error Detection

Question: He pretended (A)/ that he knows nothing (B)/ about the secret plan (C)/ discussed in the meeting. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The verb “knows” should be in the past tense (“knew”) to match the past tense of “pretended.” The error is in part (B).

Q10. Error Detection

Question: Not only he (A)/ ignore the warnings, (B)/ but he also (C)/ mocked the elders. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (a) A
Explanation: In “not only…but also” constructions, the subject follows “not only,” so it should be “Not only did he.” The error is in part (A).

Q11. Error Detection

Question: She found (A)/ an unique solution (B)/ to the complex (C)/ logistical problem. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: “Unique” starts with a consonant sound, so the article should be “a,” not “an.” The error is in part (B).

Q12. Error Detection

Question: The rebels planned (A)/ to blow out (B)/ the bridge before (C)/ reinforcements arrived. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Answer: (b) B
Explanation: The correct phrase is “blow up” (destroy), not “blow out.” The error is in part (B).

Q13. Reading Comprehension

Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
(I) The legalization of online betting in the United States has influenced global betting trends, including in Europe.
(II) Traditional casinos are becoming obsolete due to the growing popularity of online gambling platforms.
(III) The integration of technology, such as AI and blockchain, has improved security in online gambling.
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Answer: (d) Both (I) and (III)
Explanation: The passage confirms (I) with the global ripple effect and (III) with AI and blockchain enhancing security. (II) is incorrect as the passage does not state traditional casinos are obsolete.

Q14. Reading Comprehension

Question: Which of the following is a concern regarding online betting, based on the passage?
(a) Traditional casinos will completely disappear in the near future.
(b) Online gambling companies may manipulate algorithms to increase losses.
(c) The increased engagement in sports may create biased betting outcomes.
(d) A lack of proper financial education may lead to severe monetary losses for new bettors.
(e) Governments will completely ban online betting again due to its risks.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The passage highlights financial losses due to a lack of financial literacy among new bettors. Other options are not supported by the passage.

Q15. Reading Comprehension

Question: Identify the INCORRECT statement based on the passage.
(a) The U.S. legalization of online betting has influenced global gambling trends, impacting regulations and betting dynamics in other countries.
(b) Online gambling companies have successfully eliminated gambling addiction through AI-driven detection and prevention systems.
(c) The passage highlights that gamification in digital betting can make gambling more addictive by obscuring its long-term consequences.
(d) Both A and B
(e) All are incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The passage does not mention AI eliminating gambling addiction, making (b) incorrect. (a) and (c) are supported by the passage.

Q16. Reading Comprehension

Question: Identify the correct synonym for “engage” based on its usage in the passage.
(a) Capture
(b) Captivate
(c) Emerge
(d) Replace
(e) Evolve
Answer: (b) Captivate
Explanation: “Engage” in the passage means to attract or involve, and “captivate” (to hold attention) is the closest synonym.

Q17. Reading Comprehension

Question: Based on the passage, how has the U.S. decision to legalize online betting impacted global gambling trends?
(a) It has primarily benefited U.S. sports leagues, while the global gambling industry remains unaffected due to differing regulatory structures.
(b) The passage suggests that U.S. legalization has caused a worldwide increase in problem gambling, overwhelming responsible gambling initiatives.
(c) The ripple effect of this decision has influenced European markets by increasing sports engagement and enhancing revenue streams for clubs and leagues.
(d) The passage implies that U.S. legalization has had minimal influence outside its borders, as most online gambling companies operate independently of U.S. laws.
(e) The global sports industry has opposed this change, fearing that the rise of online betting could reduce traditional in-person viewership.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The passage states the legalization led to increased sports engagement and revenue in Europe, supporting (c).

Q18. Reading Comprehension

Question: What potential risk associated with online betting does the passage emphasize the most?
(a) The complete lack of gambling regulations worldwide, which has allowed fraudulent activities to flourish.
(b) The psychological and financial dangers of unchecked digital gambling, particularly among young and inexperienced users.
(c) The negative impact of online betting on professional sports, leading to a decline in revenue and viewership.
(d) The erosion of traditional casino culture due to the increasing preference for digital betting platforms.
(e) The long-term economic instability of online gambling companies due to increasing competition and market saturation.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The passage emphasizes addictive behaviors and financial losses among youth as primary risks.

Q19. Reading Comprehension

Question: Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to the opposite of “vice” as used in the passage?
(a) Corruption
(b) Virtue
(c) Immorality
(d) Sin
(e) Depravity
Answer: (b) Virtue
Explanation: “Vice” refers to a harmful habit; its opposite is “virtue” (moral excellence). Other options are synonyms or related to vice.

Q20. Reading Comprehension

Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
(I) The reversal of online betting laws in the U.S. has only influenced gambling trends in the country itself.
(II) The integration of live-streaming within sports betting platforms has transformed how users engage with betting.
(III) Online betting platforms integrate live-streaming services to enhance real-time engagement.
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) All (I), (II), and (III)
(e) Only (I)
Answer: (c) Both (II) and (III)
Explanation: (II) and (III) are supported by the passage’s mention of live-streaming enhancing engagement. (I) is incorrect due to the global ripple effect.

Q21. Reading Comprehension

Question: Which of the following words is the closest in meaning to “launching” as used in the passage?
(a) Terminating
(b) Initiating
(c) Encouraging
(d) Preponing
(e) Withdrawing
Answer: (b) Initiating
Explanation: “Launching” means starting something new, and “initiating” is the closest synonym. Other options do not fit.

Q22. Sentence Rearrangement

Question: The ancient temple torrential (A) under the relentless force of the majestic (B) rain, leaving only fragments of its once crumbled (C) structure scattered across the valley.
(a) ACB
(b) CAB
(c) BAC
(d) BCA
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (b) CAB
Explanation: The correct sentence is: “The ancient temple crumbled (C) under the relentless force of the torrential (A) rain, leaving only fragments of its once majestic (B) structure.” This order ensures logical flow.

Q23. Sentence Rearrangement

Question: The commander’s pivotal (A) to launch the offensive (B) at dawn cost the army a reluctance (C) strategic advantage in the battle.
(a) CBA
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) CAB
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (a) CBA
Explanation: The correct sentence is: “The commander’s reluctance (C) to launch the offensive (B) at dawn cost the army a pivotal (A) strategic advantage.” This order makes the sentence coherent.

Q24. Sentence Rearrangement

Question: The detective’s astute (A) observations led to a crucial (B) clue that unraveled (C) the mystery.
(a) CAB
(b) ACB
(c) BAC
(d) BCA
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: The sentence is already correct and coherent.

Q25. Sentence Rearrangement

Question: The leader’s resilient (A) attitude in adversity (B) motivated his team to face challenges with fearless (C) determination.
(a) BCA
(b) CAB
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No rearrangement required
Answer: (b) CAB
Explanation: The correct sentence is: “The leader’s attitude in adversity (B) was resilient (A) and motivated his team to face challenges with fearless (C) determination.”

Q26. Paragraph Rearrangement

Question: Which of the following is the correct sequence after rearrangement?
(a) FABCED
(b) FBADCE
(c) BAECDF
(d) FADCEB
(e) BCDEAF
Answer: (b) FBADCE
Explanation: The coherent paragraph starts with (F) introducing the water shortage, followed by (B) women’s actions, (A) results, (D) government recognition, (C) new policies, and (E) broader impact.

Q27. Paragraph Rearrangement

Question: Which of the following is the FIRST statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E
Answer: (d) F
Explanation: (F) introduces the problem, making it the first statement in the sequence FBADCE.

Q28. Paragraph Rearrangement

Question: Which of the following is the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (c) C
Explanation: In the sequence FBADCE, (C) is the fifth statement.

Q29. Paragraph Rearrangement

Question: Which of the following is the THIRD statement after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (a) A
Explanation: In the sequence FBADCE, (A) is the third statement.

Q30. Paragraph Rearrangement

Question: Which of the following is the LAST statement after rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (e) E
Explanation: In the sequence FBADCE, (E) concludes the paragraph.

Q31. Sentence Formation

Question: Match phrases to form meaningful sentences.
(a) A-D
(b) B-D
(c) C-F
(d) A-E
(e) Both A-D and C-F
Answer: (e) Both A-D and C-F
Explanation: A-D forms: “Struggling to navigate the stormy seas, they refused to abandon hope.” C-F forms: “Enduring the relentless hardships, he emerged stronger than before.” Both are correct.

Q32. Sentence Formation

Question: Match phrases to form meaningful sentences.
(a) A-D
(b) A-E
(c) C-F
(d) B-E
(e) Both A-D and B-E
Answer: (d) B-E
Explanation: B-E forms: “The sudden betrayal of his closest ally shattered his faith in loyalty.” Other pairs do not form logical sentences.

Q33. Cloze Test

Question: Black pepper, often referred to as the “king of spices,” ___ an essential component of cuisines worldwide.
(a) remains
(b) signifies
(c) denotes
(d) embodies
(e) constitutes
Answer: (a) remains
Explanation: “Remains” indicates black pepper’s continued importance, fitting the present context.

Q34. Cloze Test

Question: It ___ originally cultivated in South Asia, particularly in India.
(a) is
(b) has
(c) had been
(d) was being
(e) was
Answer: (e) was
Explanation: “Was” reflects the past cultivation of black pepper, aligning with the historical context.

Q35. Cloze Test

Question: The distinctive aroma of black pepper ___ from its volatile oils.
(a) emerge
(b) derives
(c) originates
(d) stems
(e) exudes
Answer: (c) originates
Explanation: “Originates” correctly indicates the source of the aroma, matching the sentence’s meaning.

Q36. Cloze Test

Question: Although black pepper ___ widely used today…
(a) is
(b) was
(c) has been
(d) had been
(e) will be
Answer: (a) is
Explanation: “Is” reflects the current widespread use of black pepper.

Q37. Cloze Test

Question: Historical records indicate that it ___ once considered a luxury item.
(a) has
(b) was
(c) had
(d) is
(e) are
Answer: (b) was
Explanation: “Was” indicates the past perception of black pepper as a luxury.

Q38. Cloze Test

Question: Grinding ___ its essential oils to dissipate over time.
(a) causes
(b) had caused
(c) has caused
(d) cause
(e) will cause
Answer: (a) causes
Explanation: “Causes” expresses a general fact about grinding’s effect on oils.

Q39. Phrase Replacement

Question: Despite of the heavy storm, the fishermen decided to set sail early in the morning.
(a) Despite the heavy storm
(b) In spite the heavy storm
(c) Even despite the heavy storm
(d) Although of the heavy storm
(e) No correction required
Answer: (a) Despite the heavy storm
Explanation: “Despite” does not require “of,” making (a) the correct replacement.

Q40. Phrase Replacement

Question: Had he known about the crisis, he would help his colleagues before leaving.
(a) he would had helped
(b) he would helped
(c) he will help
(d) he would have helped
(e) No correction required
Answer: (d) he would have helped
Explanation: The third conditional requires “would have helped” for a past hypothetical situation.

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Quantitative Aptitude Section

Q41. Data Interpretation

Question: In A, the ratio of flats occupied by female working in public sector is 120, which is 20% more than flats occupied by male and private sector. Find the sum of flats occupied by male in public sector and female in private sector.
(a) 80
(b) 90
(c) 100
(d) 150
(e) 120
Answer: (a) 80
Explanation: Total occupied flats in A = 300, vacant = 200, public sector = 200, private sector = 100. Female public sector = 120, so male public sector = 200 – 120 = 80. Private sector male = 100 (since 120 is 20% more than private sector total), so private sector female = 0. Sum = 80 + 0 = 80.

Q42. Data Interpretation

Question: In building F, the ratio of occupied to vacant flats is the same as building B, and flats occupied by public sector employees is the average of private sector flats in A and B. If vacant flats in F are 2/5th of public sector flats, find private sector flats in F.
(a) 25
(b) 39
(c) 24
(d) 50
(e) 20
Answer: (a) 25
Explanation: Building B’s occupied:vacant ratio = 3:1. Private sector flats in A = 100, B = 150, so average public sector in F = 125. Vacant flats in F = 2/5 × 125 = 50. Total occupied = 3 × 50 = 150. Private sector in F = 150 – 125 = 25.

Q43. Data Interpretation

Question: Find the ratio of vacant flats in C and occupied flats in B together to flats occupied by private employees in C and public sector employees in D.
(a) 5:6
(b) 17:11
(c) 10:11
(d) 1:1
(e) 12:11
Answer: (b) 17:11
Explanation: Vacant flats in C = 120, occupied in B = 390, total = 510. Private in C = 180, public in D = 150, total = 330. Ratio = 510:330 = 17:11.

Q44. Data Interpretation

Question: In D, 20% of public sector employees have a car, and the rest have bikes; 40% of private sector employees have bikes, and the rest have cars. Find the difference between public sector employees with bikes and private sector employees with cars.
(a) 50
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 125
(e) 120
Answer: (b) 75
Explanation: Public sector in D = 150, cars = 20% = 30, bikes = 120. Private sector = 75, bikes = 40% = 30, cars = 45. Difference = 120 – 45 = 75.

Q45. Data Interpretation

Question: If the number of flats per floor is 2.5x and each floor has the same number of flats, find the sum of the number of floors in C and D.
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) 12
Answer: (d) 11
Explanation: Flats per floor = 2.5 × 40 = 100. Total flats in C = 600, floors = 600/100 = 6. Total flats in D = 500, floors = 500/100 = 5. Sum = 6 + 5 = 11.

Q46. Data Interpretation (Pie Chart & Bar Graph)

Question: The total number of newspapers published by F is 25% more than that of C, and magazines by B and F are in the ratio 7:4. Find the difference between magazines and newspapers published by F.
(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 35
(d) 30
(e) 20
Answer: (b) 45
Explanation: Newspapers by C = 100, F = 125. Total newspapers = 400. Magazines by B = 140, F = 80 (7:4 ratio). Difference = 125 – 80 = 45.

Q47. Data Interpretation

Question: 40% of magazines published by A are sold, and 20% of newspapers by A are unsold. Find the ratio of magazines to newspapers sold by A.
(a) 7:12
(b) 5:11
(c) 3:13
(d) 4:19
(e) 5:16
Answer: (e) 5:16
Explanation: Magazines by A = 50, sold = 40% = 20. Newspapers = 80, sold = 80% = 64. Ratio = 20:64 = 5:16.

Q48. Data Interpretation

Question: The ratio of sports to fashion magazines by D is 5:4. The number of sports magazines by D is what percentage of newspapers by A?
(a) 125%
(b) 80%
(c) 65%
(d) 75%
(e) 100%
Answer: (a) 125%
Explanation: Magazines by D = 180, sports = 5/9 × 180 = 100. Newspapers by A = 80. Percentage = 100/80 × 100 = 125%.

Q49. Data Interpretation

Question: Newspapers by G are 4X more than E, and magazines by G are X less than A. Find the total newspapers and magazines by G.
(a) 250
(b) 150
(c) 190
(d) 180
(e) 215
Answer: (e) 215
Explanation: Newspapers by E = 120, G = 4 × 15 + 120 = 180. Magazines by A = 50, G = 50 – 15 = 35. Total = 180 + 35 = 215.

Q50. Data Interpretation

Question: Magazines by B and F together = 12X. Find the average number of magazines by F and D.
(a) 110
(b) 120
(c) 90
(d) 130
(e) 125
Answer: (a) 110
Explanation: Magazines by B = 140, F = 40 (12 × 15 – 140). Magazines by D = 180. Average = (40 + 180)/2 = 110.

Q51. Profit and Loss

Question: A and B’s investments are in the ratio 4:5. 30% of the dividend is equally distributed, and the rest is per profit share. If the dividend difference is Rs 280, find the total profit.
(a) 3200
(b) 3600
(c) 3800
(d) 4000
(e) 4400
Answer: (b) 3600
Explanation: Profit ratio = 4:5. Let total profit = 900x. A’s share = 135x + 280x = 415x, B’s = 135x + 350x = 485x. Difference = 485x – 415x = 280, x = 4. Total profit = 900 × 4 = 3600.

Q52. Average

Question: The average age of (X+14) students is X years. Including two teachers, the average increases by 1. If teachers’ ages sum to 64, find X.
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 14
(e) 16
Answer: (e) 16
Explanation: (X+14)X + 64 = (X+16)(X+1). Solving, 14X + 64 = 17X + 16, 3X = 48, X = 16.

Q53. Simple Interest

Question: An amount becomes 13 times itself in a year at simple interest, with the rate thrice the time. Find the rate.
(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 60
(e) 90
Answer: (d) 60
Explanation: Let principal = P, time = T, rate = 3T. 12P = P × 3T × T/100, 1200 = 3T², T = 20, rate = 3 × 20 = 60.

Q54. Boats and Streams

Question: The stream speed is 16⅔% of downstream speed. The boat covers 120 km upstream in 5 hours. If it covers D-3 km downstream and D+30 km at still water speed in 5.5 hours, find D.
(a) 55
(b) 75
(c) 80
(d) 60
(e) 45
Answer: (b) 75
Explanation: Downstream speed = 6x, stream = x, still water = 5x. Upstream: 120/(5x-x) = 5, x = 6. Still water = 30 km/hr. (D-3)/36 + (D+30)/30 = 5.5, 11D = 825, D = 75.

Q55. Mixtures

Question: Vessel X has milk:water = 5:3, Y has 7:5. Milk-water difference in Y equals water in X. Water in Y is 5 liters more than milk in X. Find total mixture in X.
(a) 156
(b) 126
(c) 120
(d) 16
(e) 88
Answer: (d) 16
Explanation: Let milk, water in X = 5x, 3x; in Y = 7y, 5y. 7y – 5y = 3x, y:x = 3:2. 5y = 5x + 5, 15a – 10a = 5, a = 1. Total in X = 8 × 2 = 16 liters.

Q56. Ages

Question: Sum of ages of X, Y, Z = 190. X-Y = 2(Z-Y), Y:Z = 7:9, X < Y. Find minimum possible age of X.
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 36
(d) 25
(e) Can’t be determined
Answer: (a) 30
Explanation: Y = 7x, Z = 9x. X + 7x + 9x = 190, 16x = 190 – X. Only X = 30 satisfies X < Y (84).

Q57. Profit and Loss

Question: Cost price = X, marked up 40%, discount 20%. If cost price is Rs 100 less and selling price Rs 80 more, profit is 60%. Find original selling price.
(a) 540
(b) 720
(c) 840
(d) 560
(e) 600
Answer: (d) 560
Explanation: X = 100x, MP = 140x, SP = 112x. New CP = 100x – 100, SP = 112x + 80. 1.6(100x – 100) = 112x + 80, x = 5. SP = 112 × 5 = 560.

Q58. Interest

Question: (X-2500) at 8.006% SI for 5 years 3 days, X at 10% CI for 2 years 2 days. Difference in interest = Rs 900. Find amount in scheme A.
(a) 5000
(b) 5500
(c) 7840
(d) 7500
(e) 5600
Answer: (d) 7500
Explanation: SI = (X-2500) × 0.4, CI ≈ 0.21X. 0.4X – 1000 – 0.21X = 900, 0.19X = 1900, X = 10000. Scheme A = 10000 – 2500 = 7500.

Q59. Number Series

Question: 8, 21, 41, 72, 116, 175, 257. Find the wrong number.
(a) 257
(b) 116
(c) 21
(d) 175
(e) 41
Answer: (d) 175
Explanation: Differences: 13, 20, 31, 44, 61, 80 (+7, +11, +13, +17, +19). 175 should be 177 (116 + 61).

Q60. Number Series

Question: 5040, 720, 120, 24, 6, 2, 1. Find the wrong number.
(a) 720
(b) 120
(c) 5040
(d) 2
(e) 1
Answer: (e) 1
Explanation: Series: 5040 ÷ 7 = 720, ÷ 6 = 120, ÷ 5 = 24, ÷ 4 = 6, ÷ 3 = 2, ÷ 2 = 1. Last term should be 2 ÷ 2 = 1, but 1 is correct; check series, 1 should be 0.5 (2 ÷ 4).

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Reasoning Ability Section

Q61. Venn Diagram

Question: Find the ratio of people who like only cricket and chess together to people who like only volleyball.
(a) 24:25
(b) 25:24
(c) 15:16
(d) 10:9
(e) 5:4
Answer: (a) 24:25
Explanation: Only volleyball = 25, only chess = 10, only cricket = 28. Chess and cricket = 24. Ratio = 24:25.

Q62. Venn Diagram

Question: Find the difference between people who like only one game and those who like all games together.
(a) 20
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 12
(e) 14
Answer: (b) 13
Explanation: Only one game = 25 + 10 + 28 = 63. All games = 50. Difference = 63 – 50 = 13.

Q63. Venn Diagram

Question: People who like only volleyball and cricket together is double those who like only cricket. Find people who like volleyball.
(a) 120
(b) 125
(c) 143
(d) 110
(e) 115
Answer: (c) 143
Explanation: Only cricket = 28, volleyball and cricket = 56. Volleyball = 25 + 12 + 50 + 56 = 143.

Q64. Venn Diagram

Question: Find the value of x.
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 10
(e) 5
Answer: (c) 15
Explanation: Only volleyball = x + 10 = 25, x = 15.

Q65. Venn Diagram

Question: If male:female chess likers = 7:5, find the percentage by which females liking chess are more/less than those liking all games.
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 90%
(d) 80%
(e) 25%
Answer: (a) 20%
Explanation: Chess females = 5/12 × 96 = 40. All games = 50. Percentage = (50-40)/50 × 100 = 20% less.

Q66. Number Series

Question: A is five consecutive even numbers, B is five consecutive odd numbers. A’s third term is 3 more than B’s. Sum of first terms = 397. Find sum of third terms.
(a) 403
(b) 407
(c) 405
(d) 401
(e) 409
Answer: (c) 405
Explanation: A: a, a+2, a+4; B: b, b+2, b+4. a+4 – (b+4) = 3, a – b = 3. a + b = 397, a = 200, b = 197. Third terms: 204 + 201 = 405.

Q67. Geometry

Question: A rectangle’s area is 528 cm² more than a circle’s. Length:breadth = 26:11, circle’s radius = 7/11 of breadth. Find radius.
(a) 14
(b) 10.5
(c) 28
(d) 21
(e) 7
Answer: (c) 28
Explanation: Length = 26x, breadth = 11x, radius = 7x. 26x × 11x – 22/7 × 49x² = 528, 132x = 528, x = 4. Radius = 7 × 4 = 28 cm.

Q68. Ages

Question: Ten years ago, A and B’s average age was 30. Eight years hence, A:B = 5:7. C’s age five years ago was 7/9 of B’s three years ago. Find C’s present age.
(a) 40
(b) 35
(c) 45
(d) 48
(e) 32
Answer: (a) 40
Explanation: A + B = 80. A+8:B+8 = 5:7, 12x = 96, x = 8. B = 56, three years ago = 53. C = 53 × 7/9 + 5 = 40.

Q69. Data Sufficiency

Question: What is the ratio of savings of V and D?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Either I or II
(e) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation: From I: V’s income = 24x, S = 25x, V’s expenditure = 7y, S = 8y. From II: S saves 14000, V saves 14800, D’s income = S + 2000. Solving, V:D savings = 37:32.

Q70. Data Sufficiency

Question: What is R’s age after two years?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Both together not sufficient
(e) Either I or II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation: From I: A + N = 48, R:A = 2:3. From II: N = S + 4, S:R = 1:2. Solving, R = 22, after 2 years = 24.

Q71. Syllogism

Question: All apple are orange. Only a few orange are fruit. Some apple is not red. Conclusions: I. All fruit being apple is a possibility. II. Some red are orange.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Either I or II
(d) Both I and II
(e) None follows
Answer: (a) Only I
Explanation: I is possible as no direct contradiction exists. II does not follow due to no relation between red and orange.

Q72. Syllogism

Question: Only trains are planes. Some cars are trains. All cars are ships. Conclusions: I. Some planes being ships is a possibility. II. All trains can never be cars.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Either I or II
(d) Both I and II
(e) None follows
Answer: (b) Only II
Explanation: II follows as some trains (planes) are not cars. I does not follow due to restricted plane relations.

Q73. Syllogism

Question: No cups are mugs. Only a few cups are plates. All mugs are spoons. Conclusions: I. No plates being spoons is a possibility. II. All cups can never be plates.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Either I or II
(d) Both I and II
(e) None follows
Answer: (d) Both I and II
Explanation: I is possible as no direct relation exists. II follows due to “only a few” implying some cups are not plates.

Q74. Coding-Decoding

Question: Find the odd one out: JMH, TWR, EHC, QTO, ORK.
(a) JMH
(b) TWR
(c) EHC
(d) QTO
(e) ORK
Answer: (e) ORK
Explanation: Pattern: First letter +3, second -2, third +4 (e.g., J+3=M, M-2=K, H+4=L). ORK (O+3=R, R-2=P, K+4=O) does not fit.

Q75. Number Puzzle

Question: How many pairs of digits in 83573971 have as many digits between them as their difference in the English numeric series?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) More than four
Answer: (c) Three
Explanation: Pairs: (8,5) difference 3 with 3 digits between, (3,7) difference 4 with 4 digits, (7,1) difference 6 with 6 digits. Three pairs.

Q76. Order and Ranking

Question: The number of persons junior to I is the same as the number senior to ___.
(a) G
(b) H
(c) C
(d) A
(e) F
Answer: (b) H
Explanation: Order: C, G, H, F, D, A, I, B, E. Juniors to I = 2, seniors to H = 2.

Q77. Order and Ranking

Question: Which statement is correct?
(a) F is CTO
(b) Less than four between G and B
(c) A is immediate junior to D
(d) Equal senior and junior to E
(e) A is senior to GM
Answer: (c) A is immediate junior to D
Explanation: Order: C, G, H, F, D, A, I, B, E. D (VP) is followed by A (GM).

Q78. Order and Ranking

Question: Which pair is correct?
(a) AGM – I
(b) VP – D
(c) CMO – F
(d) Manager – E
(e) All are correct
Answer: (e) All are correct
Explanation: All pairs match the order: C (CEO), G (CFO), H (CTO), F (CMO), D (VP), A (GM), I (AGM), B (DGM), E (Manager).

Q79. Order and Ranking

Question: Which pair has the first person three designations senior to the second?
(a) G-A
(b) C-I
(c) H-F
(d) D-B
(e) B-E
Answer: (d) D-B
Explanation: D (5th) is three positions senior to B (8th).

Q80. Order and Ranking

Question: Who is two designations junior to I?
(a) H
(b) E
(c) A
(d) C
(e) G
Answer: (b) E
Explanation: I (7th), two junior is E (9th).

Q81. Seating Arrangement

Question: Four of the following are similar, who is not related?
(a) U
(b) V
(c) H
(d) D
(e) R
Answer: (a) U
Explanation: Arrangement: Row 1: F, H, E, G, D, C, B; Row 2: V, S, Q, R, U, T, P. U does not share the group’s pattern.

Q82. Seating Arrangement

Question: How many persons sit between U and the one who faces F?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Answer: (b) Two
Explanation: U (5th in Row 2), F (1st in Row 1), faces V. Between U and V: S, Q (2 persons).

Q83. Seating Arrangement

Question: What is H’s position with respect to the one opposite S?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Immediate left
(c) Fourth to the right
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) Third to the right
Answer: (c) Fourth to the right
Explanation: S (2nd in Row 2), opposite H (2nd in Row 1). H is fourth to the right of D (opposite S).

Q84. Seating Arrangement

Question: Which statement is true?
I. Four persons sit to the right of U
II. E sits immediate right of G
III. F is the only neighbor of H
(a) Only II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only III
(d) Only I
(e) Only I and II
Answer: (e) Only I and II
Explanation: I: True (T, P to right of U). II: True (E right of G). III: False (H has F, E as neighbors).

Q85. Seating Arrangement

Question: If V is related to E, P to B, then Q is related to whom?
(a) G
(b) D
(c) F
(d) H
(e) C
Answer: (a) G
Explanation: Pattern: V faces E, P faces B. Q faces G.

Q86. Box Arrangement

Question: How many boxes are between G and A?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Answer: (e) Five
Explanation: Order: F, A, I, E, H, B, D, G, C. Five boxes (I, E, H, B, D) between A and G.

Q87. Box Arrangement

Question: Which box is at the topmost position?
(a) A
(b) G
(c) B
(d) F
(e) H
Answer: (d) F
Explanation: F is at the top.

Q88. Box Arrangement

Question: Which box is exactly between F and C?
(a) B
(b) G
(c) H
(d) D
(e) E
Answer: (c) H
Explanation: Between F (1st) and C (9th): H (5th).

Q89. Box Arrangement

Question: What is E’s position from the topmost?
(a) Fourth
(b) Fifth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh
(e) Eighth
Answer: (a) Fourth
Explanation: E is 4th from top.

Q90. Box Arrangement

Question: If E is related to B, H to D, then which box is related to I?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) C
(d) H
(e) G
Answer: (b) F
Explanation: Pattern: E (4th) to B (6th), H (5th) to D (7th). I (3rd) to F (1st).

Q91. Miscellaneous

Question: Which persons study in Oxford?
(a) P, R
(b) S, V
(c) P, S, V
(d) P, Q, T
(e) None of these
Answer: (e) None of these
Explanation: Oxford: P, U. None of the options match.

Q92. Miscellaneous

Question: Who likes white color?
(a) Q
(b) S
(c) R
(d) V
(e) None of these
Answer: (c) R
Explanation: R likes white.

Q93. Miscellaneous

Question: Which color does T like?
(a) Green
(b) Gold
(c) Maroon
(d) Silver
(e) None of these
Answer: (d) Silver
Explanation: T likes silver.

Q94. Miscellaneous

Question: Which university does S study in?
(a) Oxford
(b) Cambridge
(c) Texas
(d) Either Oxford or Cambridge
(e) Either Cambridge or Texas
Answer: (c) Texas
Explanation: S studies in Texas.

Q95. Miscellaneous

Question: How many persons like silver?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) One
Explanation: Only T likes silver.

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