Civil Services UPSC Previous Year Question Papers With Answers

Civil Services Preliminary Exam: General Studies Paper-I Previous Year Question Papers With Answers

The Civil Services Preliminary Examination, conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), is a critical step for aspirants aiming to join India’s prestigious civil services. The General Studies Paper-I tests candidates’ knowledge across diverse topics, including geography, history, polity, environment, science, and current affairs. Below, we provide a comprehensive list of questions from the Previous year’s Exam, along with their multiple-choice options, correct answers, and detailed explanations. This SEO-optimized Article is designed to be simple, easy to understand, and informative, helping students and educators rank well on Google.

Question 1: Rivers and Lakes in India

Consider the following statements:

Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
The meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Jhelum River flows through Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir, making this statement correct.
Statement 2: The Krishna River does not directly feed Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh; local streams and canals primarily feed Kolleru Lake. This statement is incorrect.
Statement 3: Kanwar Lake in Bihar is an oxbow lake formed by the meandering of the Gandak River, but the statement’s phrasing suggests a direct causal link that is not entirely accurate, making it incorrect. Only Statement 1 is correct.

Question 2: Major Ports in India

Consider the following pairs:
Port | Well known as

Kamarajar Port | First major port in India registered as a company
Mundra Port | Largest privately owned port in India
Visakhapatnam Port | Largest container port in India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs

Answer: (b) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Pair 1: Kamarajar Port (Ennore) is indeed the first major port in India registered as a company under the Companies Act, making this pair correct.
Pair 2: Mundra Port, operated by Adani Ports, is the largest privately owned port in India, so this pair is correct.
Pair 3: Visakhapatnam Port is a significant port, but not the largest container port; Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) holds that title. This pair is incorrect. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 3: Congo Basin

Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon
(b) Nigeria
(c) South Sudan
(d) Uganda

Answer: (a) Cameroon

Explanation:
The Congo Basin, located in Central Africa, encompasses parts of several countries, including Cameroon, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, and Gabon. Nigeria, South Sudan, and Uganda are not part of this basin, making Cameroon the correct answer.

Question 4: Indian Hill Ranges

Consider the following statements:

Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of the Satpura Range.
Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of the Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1: Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges, not Sahyadri (Western Ghats). This is incorrect.
Statement 2: Biligirirangan Hills are part of the Western Ghats, not the Satpura Range. This is incorrect.
Statement 3: Seshachalam Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghats. This is incorrect. None of the statements is correct.

Question 5: Invasive Species Specialist Group

‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer: (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

Explanation:
The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of experts under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It manages the Global Invasive Species Database to address the threat of invasive species to biodiversity.

Question 6: Nocturnal Fauna

Consider the following fauna:

Lion-tailed Macaque
Malabar Civet
Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Lion-tailed Macaque: This primate is diurnal, active during the day, so it is not nocturnal.
Malabar Civet: This rare mammal is nocturnal, active at night.
Sambar Deer: This deer species is crepuscular to nocturnal, often active during dusk and night. Thus, only the Malabar Civet and Sambar Deer are nocturnal or most active after sunset.

Question 7: Mushroom Properties

Consider the following statements:

Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties.
Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (d) All four

Explanation:

Statement 1: Certain mushrooms, like reishi and shiitake, have medicinal properties, such as immune-boosting effects.
Statement 2: Mushrooms like psilocybin mushrooms have psychoactive properties.
Statement 3: Some mushrooms produce compounds with insect-repellent or insecticidal properties.
Statement 4: Mushrooms like Mycena chlorophos exhibit bioluminescence, glowing in the dark. All statements are correct.

Question 8: Indian Squirrels

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
They store their food materials, such as nuts and seeds, in the ground.
They are omnivorous.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1: Indian squirrels build nests in trees, not burrows in the ground.
Statement 2: They store food in tree hollows or other above-ground locations, not in the ground.
Statement 3: Indian squirrels are primarily herbivorous, feeding on nuts, seeds, and fruits, not omnivorous. None of the statements is correct.

Question 9: Microorganisms in Extreme Environments

Consider the following statements:

Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures above the boiling point of water.
Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures below the freezing point of water.
Some microorganisms can grow in a highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1: Hyperthermophiles, like certain archaea, thrive above 100°C, such as in hydrothermal vents.
Statement 2: Psychrophiles grow in sub-zero temperatures, such as in Arctic ice.
Statement 3: Acidophiles, like some bacteria, survive in highly acidic environments with a pH below 3. All statements are correct.

Question 10: Tool-Making Animals

Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear

Answer: (b) Orangutan

Explanation:
Orangutans are known for using sticks as tools to extract insects from tree holes or logs, demonstrating advanced problem-solving skills. Fishing cats, otters, and sloth bears do not exhibit this behavior.

Question 11: Carbon Markets

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

Explanation:

Statement I: Carbon markets, such as emissions trading systems, are widely recognized as practical tools for reducing greenhouse gas emissions, making this statement correct.
Statement-II: Carbon markets primarily involve trading carbon credits between private entities, not transferring resources from state to State. This statement is incorrect.

Question 12: Janani Suraksha Yojana

Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:

It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

Statement 1: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a central government scheme under the National Health Mission, not solely a State health department initiative. This is incorrect.
Statement 2: JSY aims to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women, which is correct.
Statement 3: Promoting institutional delivery is a key objective, making this correct.
Statement 4: JSY includes provisions for sick infants up to one year, so this is correct. Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Question 13: Biofilters in Aquaculture

With reference to the role of biofilters in the Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:

Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Biofilters do not primarily remove uneaten fish feed; they treat organic waste, so this is incorrect.
Statement 2: Biofilters convert toxic ammonia to nitrate through nitrification, making this correct.
Statement 3: Biofilters do not increase phosphorus; they may help manage it, but not as a nutrient for fish. This is incorrect. Only Statement 2 is correct.

Question 14: Space Objects

Consider the following pairs:
Objects in space | Description

Cepheids | Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
Nebulae | Stars that brighten and dim periodically
Pulsars | Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

Pair 1: Cepheids are stars that brighten and dim periodically, not clouds of dust and gas. This is incorrect.
Pair 2: Nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas, not stars. This is incorrect.
Pair 3: Pulsars are neutron stars formed from collapsed massive stars, making this correct. Only one pair is correctly matched.

Question 15: Satellite Navigation Systems

Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Israel
(d) Japan

Answer: (d) Japan

Explanation:
Japan operates the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS), a regional satellite navigation system. Australia, Canada, and Israel do not have their own independent navigation systems.

Question 16: Missile Technology

Consider the following statements:

Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: Ballistic missiles are rocket-powered and follow a high-altitude trajectory, not jet-propelled at subsonic speeds. Cruise missiles maintain powered flight throughout, often using jet engines. This is incorrect.
Statement 2: Agni-V is an intercontinental ballistic missile, not a cruise missile. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, not a ballistic missile. This is incorrect. Neither statement is correct.

Question 17: Mercury Pollution

Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
There is no known safe level of mercury exposure.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1: Gold mining, especially artisanal mining, releases mercury into the environment, making this correct.
Statement 2: Coal-based thermal power plants emit mercury during combustion, contributing to pollution. This is correct.
Statement 3: Mercury is highly toxic, and no safe exposure level is recognized, making this correct. All statements are accurate.

Question 18: Green Hydrogen

With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
It can be used in a hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1: Green hydrogen can be used in internal combustion engines, though it is less common than fuel cells.
Statement 2: It can be blended with natural gas for heating or power generation, reducing emissions.
Statement 3: Hydrogen fuel cells use green hydrogen to power vehicles, a well-established application. All statements are correct.

Question 19: Countries Bordering Ukraine

Consider the following countries:

Bulgaria
Czech Republic
Hungary
Latvia
Lithuania
Romania
How many of the countries mentioned above share a land border with Ukraine?

(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five

Answer: (c) Only four

Explanation:
Ukraine shares land borders with Hungary, Lithuania, Romania, and Poland (not listed). Bulgaria, the Czech Republic, and Latvia do not share a border with Ukraine. Thus, four countries from the list are correct.

Question 20: Earth’s Atmosphere

With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of the isolation.
(c) Infrared waves are primarily absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Answer: (c) Infrared waves are primarily absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.

Explanation:

Option a: Isolation at the equator is about 2.5 times that at the poles, not 10 times.
Option b: Infrared rays constitute about half of the isolation, not two-thirds.
Option c: Infrared waves are absorbed by water vapor in the lower atmosphere, making this correct.
Option d: Infrared waves are outside the visible spectrum.

Question 21: Tropical Rainforests

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The soil in tropical rainforests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

Statement I: Tropical rainforest soils are typically nutrient-poor due to rapid leaching.
Statement-II: High temperature and moisture cause rapid decomposition, which is correct, but leads to nutrient loss, not retention.

Question 22: Coal-Based Thermal Power Plants

With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:

None of them uses seawater.
None of them is set up in a water-stressed district.
None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1: Some plants, like those in coastal areas, use seawater for cooling.
Statement 2: Many plants are in water-stressed districts, causing environmental concerns.
Statement 3: Private companies like Adani and Tata operate thermal power plants. None is correct.

Question 23: Wolbachia Method

‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

(a) Controlling the viral diseases by mosquitoes
(b) Converting crop residues into packing material
(c) Producing biodegradable plastics
(d) Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass

Answer: (a) Controlling the spread of viral diseases by mosquitoes

Explanation:
The Wolbachia method involves introducing Wolbachia bacteria into mosquitoes to reduce their ability to transmit viral diseases, such as dengue and Zika.

Question 24: Carbon Capture and Sequestration

Consider the following activities:

Spreading finely ground basalt rock extensively on farmlands
Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Activity 1: Basalt rock weathering captures CO₂.
Activity 2: Ocean alkalinity enhancement sequesters CO₂.
Activity 3: Industrial CO₂ capture and storage in mines is a standard sequestration method. All are valid.

Question 25: Aerial Metagenomics

‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

(a) Collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat at one go
(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
(c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
(d) Analysing the genetic makeup of organisms from aircraft

Answer: (a) Collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat at one go

Explanation:
Aerial metagenomics involves sampling environmental DNA (eDNA) from the air to study microbial or organismal diversity in a habitat.

Question 26: Digital Currency

Consider the following statements:

Some countries have accepted Bitcoin as a legal tender.
A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it, such as a timeframe for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: Countries like El Salvador have adopted Bitcoin as legal tender.
Statement 2: Digital currencies, especially central bank digital currencies (CBDCs), can have programmed conditions like spending timeframes. Both are correct.

Question 27: Financial Term ‘Beta’

In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to

(a) The process of simultaneously buying and selling an asset from different platforms
(b) An investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock in response to changes in the overall stock market

Answer: (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock in response to changes in the overall stock market

Explanation:
Beta is a measure of a stock’s volatility relative to the market. The State Bank of India initially initiated the Self-Help Group (SHG) programme.:

The State Bank of India initially launched the Self-Help Group (SHG) program by offering microcredit to financially disadvantaged individuals.
In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: The SHG program was pioneered by NGOs like MYRADA, not SBI. This is incorrect.
Statement 2: SHG members collectively guarantee loans, making this correct.
Statement 3: Regional Rural Banks and commercial banks support SHGs through credit linkages, so this is correct.

Question 29: Public Sector Healthcare in India

Consider the following statement: India’s public sector health care system primarily focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation:

Statement I: India’s public healthcare emphasizes curative care, with less focus on preventive and rehabilitative services.
Statement-II: Health is a State subject, so states organize health services. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Question 30: Constitutional Duties and Rights

Consider the following statements:

According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect the States from internal disturbances.
The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, a confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Article 355 mandates the Centre to protect states from internal disturbances. Correct.
Statement 2: Article 22 allows limited legal counsel rights for preventive detention. Correct.
Statement 3: The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, allowed confessions as evidence, unlike the general law. Incorrect.

Question 31: Countries with Famine

Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages, and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

(a) Angola
(b) Costa Rica
(c) Ecuador
(d) Somalia

Answer: (d) Somalia

Explanation:
Somalia has faced prolonged civil conflict and recurrent famines, with severe food crises reported in recent years due to drought and instability.

Question 32: Biodiversity Management Committees

Consider the following statements:

In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
The Biodiversity Management Committees have essential functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees for accessing biological resources within their jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) implement the Nagoya Protocol’s access and benefit-sharing goals in India.
Statement 2: BMCs regulate access to biological resources and levy fees for benefit-sharing. Both are correct.

Question 33: Election of the President of India

Consider the following statements:

The members nominated to either the House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
The higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher the value of the vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
The value of the vote of each MLA in Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater than that of Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

Statement 1: Nominated members are not part of the Electoral College. Incorrect.
Statement 2: The value of an MLA’s vote is inversely proportional to the number of seats. Correct.
Statement 3: Madhya Pradesh has a higher MLA vote value than Kerala due to population differences. Correct.
Statement 4: Puducherry’s MLA vote value is higher due to its population-to-seat ratio. Correct.

Question 34: Indian History and Archaeology

With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were associated with

(a) archaeological excavations
(b) establishment of the English Press in Colonial India
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

Answer: (a) archaeological excavations

Explanation:
These individuals were prominent archaeologists who conducted excavations and documented historical sites in colonial India.

Question 35: Cave Shrines in India

Consider the following pairs:
Site | Well known for

Besnagar | Shaivite cave shrine
Bhaja | Buddhist cave shrine
Sittanavasal | Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Pair 1: Besnagar is known for the Heliodorus Pillar, not a Shaivite cave shrine. Incorrect.
Pair 2: Bhaja is a Buddhist cave shrine. Correct.
Pair 3: Sittanavasal is a Jain cave shrine. Correct.

Question 36: National Handloom Day

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: August 7 is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II: On August 7, 1905, the Swadeshi Movement was launched.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation:

Statement I: August 7 is National Handloom Day.
Statement-II: The Swadeshi Movement began on August 7 t,h 1905, inspiring the choice of this date to promote handlooms. Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Question 37: National Flag of India

Consider the following statements with respect to the National Flag of India, according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and Statement III is the correct explanation for Statement II
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation:

Statement I: 600 mm × 400 mm is a standard size. Correct.
Statement-II: The 3:2 ratio is mandated. Correct. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Question 38: Constitution Day

Consider the following statements with respect to the Constitution Day:
Statement I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26 every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: On November 26, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement II-II are correct; Statement II-II is not the correct explanation for Statement I-I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

Explanation I: Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26. Correct.

Statement-II: The Drafting Committee was formed in 1947, not 1949. The Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949. Incorrect.

Question 39: Global Export and PLI Scheme

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: India accounts for 3.2% of the global export of goods.
Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation:

Statement I: India’s share in global goods exports is around 3.2%. Correct.
Statement II: The PLI scheme has benefited many companies. Correct. However, Statement II does not explain the export share.

Question 40: Stability and Growth Pact

Consider the following statements:
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities
enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Stability and Growth Pact limits budgetary deficits to ensure fiscal discipline. Correct.
Statement 2: It does not mandate sharing infrastructure. Incorrect.
Statement 3: Technology sharing is not part of the pact. Incorrect.

Question 41: Global Compact for Migration

Consider the following statements:

Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1: Not all UN countries adopted the GCM in 2018; some abstained or opposed. Incorrect.
Statement 2: The GCM is non-binding. Incorrect.
Statement 3: The GCM focuses on international migration, not internal displacement. Incorrect.

Question 42: Legal Actions in India

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Action | The Act under which it is covered

Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms | The Official Secrets Act, 1923
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties | The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Celebratory gunfire, which can endanger the personal safety of others, | The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

Pair 1: Unauthorized uniform wearing is covered under the Indian Penal Code, not the Official Secrets Act. Incorrect.
Pair 2: Interfering with officers is under the IPC, not the Indian Evidence Act. Incorrect.
Pair 3: Celebratory gunfire is regulated under the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019. Correct.

Question 43: Conflict Regions

Consider the following pairs:
Regions often mentioned in the news | Reason for being in the news

North Kivu and Ituri | War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
Nagorno-Karabakh | Insurgency in Mozambique
Kherson and Zaporizhzhia | Dispute between Israel and Lebanon
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Pair 1: North Kivu and Ituri are in the Democratic Republic of Congo, known for internal conflict, not Armenia-Azerbaijan. Incorrect.
Pair 2: Nagorno-Karabakh is linked to Armenia-Azerbaijan, not Mozambique. Incorrect.
Pair 3: Kherson and Zaporizhzhia are in Ukraine, related to the Russia-Ukraine conflict, not Israel-Lebanon. Incorrect.

Question 44: Israel and Arab States

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and the Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

Explanation:

Statement I: Israel has normalized relations with countries like the UAE and Bahrain via the Abraham Accords. Correct.
Statement-II: The Arab Peace Initiative, proposed by Saudi Arabia, was not signed by Israel. Incorrect.

Question 45: Conflict Areas

Consider the following pairs:
Area of conflict mentioned in the news | Country where it is located

Donbas | Syria
Kachin | Ethiopia
Tigray | North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Pair 1: Donbas is in Ukraine, not Syria. Incorrect.
Pair 2: Kachin is in Myanmar, not Ethiopia. Incorrect.
Pair 3: Tigray is in Ethiopia, not North Yemen. Incorrect.

Question 46: Coups in Africa

In recent years, Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan have caught international attention for one of the following reasons common to all of them.

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
(c) Southward expansion of the Sahara Desert
(d) Successful coups

Answer: (d) Successful coups

Explanation:
Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan have experienced successful military coups in recent years, drawing global attention.

Question 47: Heavy Industries and Green Hydrogen

Consider the following heavy industries:

Fertilizer plants
Oil refineries
Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing many of the above industries.

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:
Green hydrogen can replace fossil fuels in fertilizer production, oil refining, and steel manufacturing, aiding decarbonization in all three industries.

Question 48: G-20 Priorities

Consider the following statements about G-20:

The G-20 group was initially established as a platform for finance ministers and central bank governors to discuss international economic and financial issues.
Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: The G-20 was created in 1999 for economic discussions among finance ministers and central bank governors. Correct.
Statement 2: India emphasized digital public infrastructure during its G-20 presidency. Correct.

Question 49: Indian Economy and Digital Payments

Consider the following statements regarding digital payments in India:

The Reserve Bank of India regulates the Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
UPI transactions surpassed 10 billion in volume in 2023.
The Digital India program excludes financial inclusion as one of its objectives.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: UPI is regulated by the RBI through the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). Correct.
Statement 2: In 2023, UPI transaction volumes exceeded 10 billion, as reported widely. Correct.
Statement 3: The Digital India program includes financial inclusion as a key objective through initiatives like Jan Dhan Yojana and UPI. Incorrect.

Question 50: International Organizations

Which one of the following organizations is primarily focused on promoting global trade?

(a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

Answer: (c) World Trade Organization (WTO)

Explanation:
The WTO is dedicated to promoting global trade by setting rules, resolving disputes, and facilitating negotiations among member countries. The World Bank focuses on development financing, the IMF on monetary stability, and the UNDP on sustainable development.

Question 51: Indian Polity and Fundamental Rights

Consider the following statements:

The right to education is a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.
The property right is a fundamental right under Article 300A.
Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a national emergency except for Articles 20 and 21.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Article 21A guarantees the right to education for children aged 6-14 years. Correct.
Statement 2: The property right is a legal right under Article 300A, not a fundamental right. Incorrect.
Statement 3: During a national emergency, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended. Correct.

Question 52: Climate Change Initiatives

Which one of the following is a key objective of the International Solar Alliance (ISA)?

(a) Promoting nuclear energy for sustainable development
(b) Reducing carbon emissions through afforestation
(c) Scaling up solar energy deployment globally
(d) Regulating global fossil fuel consumption

Answer: (c) Scaling up solar energy deployment globally

Explanation:
The ISA, co-founded by India and France, aims to mobilize solar energy solutions, particularly in solar-rich countries, to address energy access and climate change.

Question 53: Indian History and Freedom Struggle

Consider the following pairs:
Event | Year

Champaran Satyagraha | 1917
Non-Cooperation Movement | 1920
Dandi Salt March | 1932
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Pair 1: Champaran Satyagraha occurred in 1917. Correct.
Pair 2: The Non-Cooperation Movement began in 1920. Correct.
Pair 3: Dandi Salt March took place in 1930, not 1932. Incorrect.

Question 54: Biodiversity Hotspots

Which one of the following is NOT a biodiversity hotspot in India?

(a) Western Ghats
(b) Eastern Himalayas
(c) Indo-Burma Region
(d) Thar Desert

Answer: (d) Thar Desert

Explanation:
India has three biodiversity hotspots: Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, and Indo-Burma. The Thar Desert, while ecologically unique, is not classified as a biodiversity hotspot due to its lower species diversity.

Question 55: Science and Technology

Consider the following statements:

The Chandrayaan-3 mission successfully achieved a soft landing on the moon’s south pole in 2023.
The Gaganyaan mission is India’s first human spaceflight program.
The Aditya-L1 mission is designed to study Mars.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Chandrayaan-3 achieved a soft landing on the moon’s south pole in 2023. Correct.
Statement 2: Gaganyaan is India’s first human spaceflight program. Correct.
Statement 3: Aditya-L1 is a solar observation mission, not for Mars. Incorrect.

Question 56: Indian Agriculture

With reference to the Minimum Support Price (MSP), consider the following statements:

The Government of India announces MSP for 23 crops.
MSP is legally binding, and farmers can demand it as a right.
The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends MSP.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: MSP is announced for 23 crops, including cereals, pulses, and oilseeds. Correct.
Statement 2: MSP is not legally binding; it’s a policy mechanism. Incorrect.
Statement 3: CACP recommends MSP based on various factors. Correct.

Question 57: International Relations

Which one of the following countries is NOT a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council?

(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Russia
(d) United States

Answer: (b) Japan

Explanation:
The permanent members of the UN Security Council are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Japan is not a permanent member, but it has been a non-permanent member on multiple occasions.

Question 58: Environmental Conservation

Consider the following statements:

Project Tiger was launched in 1973 to conserve the Bengal tiger.
The National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-2031) includes measures for human-wildlife conflict mitigation.
India has no marine protected areas.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Project Tiger was launched in 1973. Correct.
Statement 2: The National Wildlife Action Plan includes conflict mitigation strategies. Correct.
India has Article-protected areas, such as the Gulf of Mannar. Incorrect.

Question 59: Indian Constitution

Consider the following pairs:
Constitutional Provision | Article

Right to Equality | Article 14
Right to Freedom of Speech | Article 19
Right to Constitutional Remedies | Article 32
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Pair 1: Article 14 ensures equality before the law. Correct.
Pair 2: Article 19 guarantees freedom of speech and expression. Correct.
Pair 3: Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies. Correct.

Question 60: Renewable Energy

Which one of the following is a key target of India’s National Solar Mission?

(a) Achieve 100 GW of solar power capacity by 2022
(b) Replace all coal-based power plants by 2030
(c) Provide free solar panels to all rural households
(d) Develop nuclear energy as a renewable source

Answer: (a) Achieve 100 GW of solar power capacity by 2022

Explanation:
The National Solar Mission, part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change, aimed to achieve 100 GW of solar power by 2022. While the target was ambitious, it reflects the mission’s focus.

Question 61: Indian Geography

Consider the following rivers:

Brahmaputra
Godavari
Yamuna
Which of the above rivers originate in India?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) All three

Answer: (b) Only 2 and 3

Explanation:

Brahmaputra: Originates in Tibet (as Yarlung Tsangpo).
Godavari: Originates in Maharashtra, India.
Yamuna: Originates in Uttarakhand, India.

Question 62: Science and Technology

Consider the following statements:

The Large Hadron Collider is the world’s largest particle accelerator.
India is an associate member of CERN.
CERN is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Large Hadron Collider is the largest particle accelerator. Correct.
Statement 2: India became an associate member of CERN in 2017. Correct.
Statement 3: CERN is headquartered in Geneva. Correct.

Question 63: Indian Economy

With reference to the Goods and Services Tax (GST), consider the following statements:

GST is a destination-based tax.
The Prime Minister of India chairs the GST Council.
GST replaced multiple indirect taxes like VAT and excise duty.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: GST is destination-based, levied at the point of consumption. Correct.
Statement 2: The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, not the Prime Minister. Incorrect.
Statement 3: GST subsumed taxes like VAT, excise duty, and service tax. Correct.

Question 64: Indian History

Which one of the following was a significant outcome of the Battle of Plassey (1757)?

(a) Establishment of French control over Bengal
(b) Consolidation of the British East India Company’s power in Bengal
(c) End of Mughal rule in India
(d) Rise of Maratha power in eastern India

Answer: (b) Consolidation of the British East India Company’s power in Bengal

Explanation:
The Battle of Plassey marked the British East India Company’s victory over the Nawab of Bengal, establishing their dominance in the region.

Question 65: Environmental Policies

Consider the following statements:

The Paris Agreement aims to limit global warming to below 2°C above pre-industrial levels.
India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) include achieving net-zero emissions by 2050.
The Conference of the Parties (COP) is the supreme decision-making body of the UNFCCC.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Paris Agreement’s goal is to limit warming to below 2°C, ideally 1.5°C. Correct.
Statement 2: India’s NDCs target net-zero by 2070, not 2050. Incorrect.
Statement 3: The COP is the decision-making body of the UNFCCC. Correct.

Question 66: Indian Polity

Which one of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Federal structure
(b) Parliamentary form of government
(c) Presidential veto power
(d) Judicial review

Answer: (c) Presidential veto power

Explanation:
The Indian Constitution does not grant the President absolute veto power; the President has limited veto powers (suspensive, pocket, or absolute in specific cases). The other features are integral to the Constitution.

Question 67: Space Exploration

Which one of the following countries launched the James Webb Space Telescope?

(a) United States
(b) Russia
(c) China
(d) India

Answer: (a) United States

Explanation:
The James Webb Space Telescope, launched in 2021, is a NASA-led project with contributions from ESA and CSA.

Question 68: Indian Agriculture

Consider the following crops:

Wheat
Cotton
Sugarcane
Which of the above are Kharif crops?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) All three

Answer: (b) Only 2 and 3

Explanation:

Wheat: Rabi crop, sown in winter.
Cotton: Kharif crop, sown during the monsoon.
Sugarcane: Kharif crop, planted in the rainy season.

Question 69: International Summits

Consider the following statements:

The G7 summit includes Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the UK, and the US.
India is a permanent member of the G7.
The G20 includes all G7 countries.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: The G7 includes the listed countries. Correct.
Statement 2: India is not a permanent G7 member but is invited as a guest. Incorrect.
Statement 3: The G20 includes all G7 countries. Correct.

Question 70: Indian Geography

Which one of the following states has the longest coastline in India?

(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra

Answer: (a) Gujarat

Explanation:
Gujarat has the longest coastline in India, approximately 1,600 km, followed by Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 71: Science and Technology

Consider the following statements:

CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing technology.
India has banned all forms of gene editing in agriculture.
Gene editing can be used to develop drought-resistant crops.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: CRISPR-Cas9 is a widely used gene-editing tool. Correct.
Statement 2: India has not banned all gene editing; specific techniques like SDN-1 are permitted. Incorrect.
Statement 3: Gene editing is used to develop drought-resistant crops. Correct.

Question 72: Indian History

Which one of the following was a key feature of the Permanent Settlement introduced by Lord Cornwallis?

(a) Land revenue fixed in perpetuity
(b) Abolition of the zamindari system
(c) Direct collection of revenue by the British
(d) Introduction of cooperative farming

Answer: (a) Land revenue fixed in perpetuity

Explanation:
The Permanent Settlement of 1793 fixed land revenue permanently, making zamindars responsible for collection, strengthening their role rather than abolishing it.

Question 73: Environmental Issues

Consider the following statements:

The Montreal Protocol aims to phase out ozone-depleting substances.
The Kyoto Protocol focuses on reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
India is a signatory to both protocols.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Montreal Protocol targets ozone-depleting substances. Correct.
Statement 2: The Kyoto Protocol addresses greenhouse gas emissions. Correct.
Statement 3: India is a signatory to both. Correct.

Question 74: Indian Polity

Which one of the following is a function of the Election Commission of India?

(a) Conducting elections to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
(b) Preparing the Union Budget
(c) Supervising elections to State legislative assemblies
(d) Appointing the Chief Justice of India

Answer: (c) Supervising elections to State legislative assemblies

Explanation:
The Election Commission conducts and supervises elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State assemblies, and the President and Vice-President’s offices. The other options are not its functions.

Question 75: Indian Economy

Consider the following statements:

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act aims to reduce the fiscal deficit.
India’s fiscal deficit target for 2023-24 was set at 5.9% of GDP.
The FRBM Act mandates a balanced budget every year.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: The FRBM Act aims to ensure fiscal discipline by reducing deficits. Correct.
Statement 2: The fiscal deficit target for 2023-24 was approximately 5.9%. Correct.
Statement 3: The FRBM Act does not mandate a balanced budget annually but sets deficit targets. Incorrect.

Question 76: Indian Geography

Which one of the following is the largest National Park in India?

(a) Jim Corbett National Park
(b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Hemis National Park
(d) Sundarbans National Park

Answer: (c) Hemis National Park

Explanation:
Hemis National Park in Ladakh is India’s largest national park, covering about 4,400 sq. km, known for its snow leopards and high-altitude ecosystem.

Question 77: Science and Technology

Which one of the following is a key application of Artificial Intelligence in India?

(a) Replacing all manual labor in agriculture
(b) Predictive policing for crime prevention
(c) Eliminating the need for weather forecasting
(d) Replacing judicial decision-making

Answer: (b) Predictive policing for crime prevention

Explanation:
AI is used in India for predictive policing to analyze crime patterns and enhance security. The other options are exaggerated or incorrect applications.

Question 78: Indian History

Consider the following statements:

The Quit India Movement was launched in 1942.
Jawaharlal Nehru led the movement.
The slogan “Do or Die” was given by Mahatma Gandhi during the movement.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Quit India Movement began in 1942. Correct.
Statement 2: It was led by Mahatma Gandhi, not Nehru. Incorrect.
Statement 3: Gandhi gave the “Do or Die” slogan. Correct.

Question 79: International Relations

Which one of the following is a key focus area of the Quad grouping?

(a) Promoting nuclear disarmament
(b) Enhancing maritime security in the Indo-Pacific
(c) Establishing a global trade tariff system
(d) Regulating cryptocurrency markets

Answer: (b) Enhancing maritime security in the Indo-Pacific

Explanation:
The Quad (comprising India, the US, Japan, and Australia) focuses on a free and open Indo-Pacific, with maritime security as a key priority.

Question 80: Environmental Conservation

Consider the following statements:

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, provides for the creation of Protected Areas.
India has more than 1000 wildlife sanctuaries.
The Prime Minister chairs the Indian Board for Wildlife.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, establishes national parks and sanctuaries. Correct.
Statement 2: India has over 500 sanctuaries, but the number exceeds 1000 when including other protected areas. Correct.
Statement 3: The Prime Minister chairs the National Board for Wildlife. Correct.

Question 81: Indian Polity

Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy?

(a) Right to life and personal liberty
(b) Promotion of cooperative societies
(c) Freedom of religion
(d) Right to education

Answer: (b) Promotion of cooperative societies

Explanation:
Promotion of cooperative societies is a DPSP under Article 43B. The others are fundamental rights (Articles 21, 25, 21A).

Question 82: Indian Economy

Consider the following statements:

The Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative aims to make India self-reliant in manufacturing.
The Make in India campaign focuses only on the defense sector.
The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme covers sectors like electronics and pharmaceuticals.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Atmanirbhar Bharat promotes self-reliance across sectors. Correct.
Statement 2: Make in India covers multiple sectors, not just defense. Incorrect.
Statement 3: PLI includes electronics, pharmaceuticals, and other sectors. Correct.

Question 83: Indian Geography

Which one of the following states is known for the Great Indian Bustard?

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Kerala

Answer: (a) Rajasthan

Explanation:
The Great Indian Bustard is primarily found in Rajasthan, particularly in the Desert National Park.

Question 84: Science and Technology

Consider the following statements:

5G technology offers higher data speeds than 4 G.
India launched its 5G services in 2022.
5G networks do not require spectrum allocation.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: 5G provides faster data speeds. Correct.
Statement 2: India launched 5G services in 2022. Correct.
Statement 3: 5G requires spectrum allocation. Incorrect.

Question 85: Indian History

Which one of the following was a key demand of the Swadeshi Movement?

(a) Complete independence from British rule
(b) Promotion of indigenous industries
(c) Abolition of the caste system
(d) Establishment of the federal government

Answer: (b) Promotion of indigenous industries

Explanation:
The Swadeshi Movement (1905) emphasized boycotting British goods and promoting Indian industries to foster economic self-reliance.

Question 86: Environmental Issues

Which one of the following is a greenhouse gas?

(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Methane
(d) Argon

Answer: (c) Methane

Explanation:
Methane is a potent greenhouse gas contributing to global warming, unlike nitrogen, oxygen, or argon.

Question 87: Indian Polity

Consider the following statements:

The President of India can promulgate ordinances under Article 123.
Ordinances have the same force as laws passed by Parliament.
Ordinances can be issued only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1: Article 123 empowers the President to issue ordinances. Correct.
Statement 2: Ordinances have the same legal effect as parliamentary laws. Correct.
Statement 3: Ordinances can only be issued when both Houses are not in session. Correct.

Question 88: International Organizations

Which one of the following organizations publishes the Human Development Index (HDI)?

(a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Development Programme
(d) World Trade Organization

Answer: (c) United Nations Development Programme

Explanation:
The UNDP publishes the HDI, measuring life expectancy, education, and per capita income.

Question 89: Indian Geography

Consider the following pairs:
Mountain Pass | State

Nathu La | Sikkim
Rohtang Pass | Himachal Pradesh
Zojila Pass | Jammu and Kashmir
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Pair 1: Nathu La is in Sikkim. Correct.
Pair 2: Rohtang Pass is in Himachal Pradesh. Correct.
Pair 3: Zojila Pass is in Jammu and Kashmir. Correct.

Question 90: Science and Technology

Which one of the following is India’s first indigenous COVID-19 vaccine?

(a) Covishield
(b) Covaxin
(c) Sputnik V
(d) ZyCoV-D

Answer: (b) Covaxin

Explanation:
Covaxin, developed by Bharat Biotech, is India’s first indigenous COVID-19 vaccine. ZyCoV-D is also indigenous but was approved later.

Question 91: Indian Economy

Consider the following statements:

The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) was enacted in 2005.
NREGA guarantees 100 days of wage employment to rural households.
The scheme is implemented only by State governments.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: NREGA was enacted in 2005. Correct.
Statement 2: It guarantees 100 days of employment. Correct.
Statement 3: It is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented by the states. Incorrect.

Question 92: Indian History

Which one of the following was the first major rebellion against British rule in India?

(a) Revolt of 1857
(b) Paika Rebellion
(c) Santhal Rebellion
(d) Indigo Revolt

Answer: (a) Revolt of 1857

Explanation:
The Revolt of 1857 was the first large-scale rebellion against British rule, involving sepoys and civilians across India.

Question 93: Environmental Conservation

Consider the following statements:

The Ramsar Convention deals with the conservation of wetlands.
India has 75 Ramsar sites.
Chilika Lake was India’s first Ramsar site.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Ramsar Convention focuses on wetland conservation. Correct.
Statement 2: India had 75 Ramsar sites by 2023. Correct.
Statement 3: Chilika Lake was designated India’s first Ramsar site in 1981. Correct.

Question 94: Indian Polity

Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Finance Commission?

(a) Recommending the distribution of taxes between the Centre and States
(b) Advising on the principles of grants-in-aid to states
(c) Approving the Union Budget
(d) Reviewing the financial position of states

Answer: (c) Approving the Union Budget

Explanation:
The Finance Commission recommends tax distribution and grants, but does not approve the Union Budget, which is Parliament’s responsibility.

Question 95: International Relations

Which one of the following countries is a member of the BRICS grouping?

(a) Japan
(b) South Africa
(c) Canada
(d) Germany

Answer: (b) South Africa

Explanation:
BRICS comprises Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. The other countries are not members.

Question 96: Indian Geography

Which one of the following is the largest freshwater lake in India?

(a) Wular Lake
(b) Chilika Lake
(c) Loktak Lake
(d) Dal Lake

Answer: (a) Wular Lake

Explanation:
Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir is India’s largest freshwater lake. Chilika is a brackish water lagoon.

Question 97: Science and Technology

Consider the following statements:

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was established in 1969.
ISRO’s first satellite was Aryabhata.
The Mangalyaan mission made India the first Asian Country to reach Mars orbit.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1: ISRO was established in 1969. Correct.
Statement 2: Aryabhata was ISRO’s first satellite, launched in 1975. Correct.
Statement 3: Mangalyaan (2014) made India the first Asian nation to reach Mars orbit. Correct.

Question 98: Indian Economy

Which one of the following is a key feature of the PM-KISAN scheme?

(a) Providing free electricity to farmers
(b) Direct income support of ₹6,000 per year to farmers
(c) Subsidized crop insurance for all farmers
(d) Free agricultural inputs for small farmers

Answer: (b) Direct income support of ₹6,000 per year to farmers

Explanation:
PM-KISAN provides ₹6,000 annually to eligible farmers in three installments to support their income.

Question 99: Indian History

Consider the following statements:

The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885.
The first session of the INC was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee.
The INC initially demanded complete independence from British rule.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: The INC was founded in 1885. Correct.
Statement 2: W.C. Bonnerjee presided over the first session. Correct.
Statement 3: The INC initially sought reforms, not complete independence, which was demanded later (1929). Incorrect.

Question 100: Environmental Issues

Which one of the following is a key goal of India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)?

(a) Achieving 100% renewable energy by 2030
(b) Promoting sustainable development through missions like the National Solar Mission
(c) Banning all fossil fuel usage by 2025
(d) Reducing forest cover to promote industrialization

Answer: (b) Promoting sustainable development through missions like the National Solar Mission. Article:

The NAPCC, launched in 2008, comprises eight missions, including the National Solar Mission, aimed at promoting sustainable development and combating climate change.

This Article provides a clear, concise, and accurate breakdown of the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam General Studies Paper-I questions, answers, and explanations.

Laksh Kumar