Civil Services UPSC Previous Year Question Papers With Answers

Civil Services Preliminary Exam: General Studies Paper-I Previous Year Question Papers With Answers

The Civil Services Preliminary Examination, conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), is a critical step for aspirants aiming to join India’s prestigious civil services. The General Studies Paper-I tests candidates’ knowledge across diverse topics, including geography, history, polity, environment, science, and current affairs. Below, we provide a comprehensive list of questions from the Previous year’s Exam, along with their multiple-choice options, correct answers, and detailed explanations. This SEO-optimized Article is designed to be simple, easy to understand, and informative, helping students and educators rank well on Google.

Question 1: Rivers and Lakes in India

Consider the following statements:

1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3. The meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The Jhelum River flows through Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir, making this statement correct.
• Statement 2: The Krishna River does not directly feed Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh; local streams and canals primarily feed Kolleru Lake. This statement is incorrect.
• Statement 3: Kanwar Lake in Bihar is an oxbow lake formed by the meandering of the Gandak River, but the statement’s phrasing suggests a direct causal link that is not entirely accurate, making it incorrect. Only Statement 1 is correct.

Question 2: Major Ports in India

Consider the following pairs:
Port | Well known as

1. Kamarajar Port | First major port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port | Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam Port | Largest container port in India
   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs

Answer: (b) Only two pairs

Explanation:

• Pair 1: Kamarajar Port (Ennore) is indeed the first major port in India registered as a company under the Companies Act, making this pair correct.
• Pair 2: Mundra Port, operated by Adani Ports, is the largest privately owned port in India, so this pair is correct.
• Pair 3: Visakhapatnam Port is a significant port, but not the largest container port; Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) holds that title. This pair is incorrect. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Question 3: Congo Basin

Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon
(b) Nigeria
(c) South Sudan
(d) Uganda

Answer: (a) Cameroon

Explanation:
The Congo Basin, located in Central Africa, encompasses parts of several countries, including Cameroon, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, and Gabon. Nigeria, South Sudan, and Uganda are not part of this basin, making Cameroon the correct answer.

Question 4: Indian Hill Ranges

Consider the following statements:

1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of the Satpura Range.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of the Western Ghats.
   How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges, not Sahyadri (Western Ghats). This is incorrect.
• Statement 2: Biligirirangan Hills are part of the Western Ghats, not the Satpura Range. This is incorrect.
• Statement 3: Seshachalam Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghats. This is incorrect. None of the statements is correct.

Question 5: Invasive Species Specialist Group

‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer: (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

Explanation:
The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of experts under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It manages the Global Invasive Species Database to address the threat of invasive species to biodiversity.

Question 6: Nocturnal Fauna

Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer
   How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

• Lion-tailed Macaque: This primate is diurnal, active during the day, so it is not nocturnal.
• Malabar Civet: This rare mammal is nocturnal, active at night.
• Sambar Deer: This deer species is crepuscular to nocturnal, often active during dusk and night. Thus, only the Malabar Civet and Sambar Deer are nocturnal or most active after sunset.

Question 7: Mushroom Properties

Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties.
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
   How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (d) All four

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Certain mushrooms, like reishi and shiitake, have medicinal properties, such as immune-boosting effects.
• Statement 2: Mushrooms like psilocybin mushrooms have psychoactive properties.
• Statement 3: Some mushrooms produce compounds with insect-repellent or insecticidal properties.
• Statement 4: Mushrooms like Mycena chlorophos exhibit bioluminescence, glowing in the dark. All statements are correct.

Question 8: Indian Squirrels

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials, such as nuts and seeds, in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.
   How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Indian squirrels build nests in trees, not burrows in the ground.
• Statement 2: They store food in tree hollows or other above-ground locations, not in the ground.
• Statement 3: Indian squirrels are primarily herbivorous, feeding on nuts, seeds, and fruits, not omnivorous. None of the statements is correct.

Question 9: Microorganisms in Extreme Environments

Consider the following statements:

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures above the boiling point of water.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures below the freezing point of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in a highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
   How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Hyperthermophiles, like certain archaea, thrive above 100°C, such as in hydrothermal vents.
• Statement 2: Psychrophiles grow in sub-zero temperatures, such as in Arctic ice.
• Statement 3: Acidophiles, like some bacteria, survive in highly acidic environments with a pH below 3. All statements are correct.

Question 10: Tool-Making Animals

Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear

Answer: (b) Orangutan

Explanation:
Orangutans are known for using sticks as tools to extract insects from tree holes or logs, demonstrating advanced problem-solving skills. Fishing cats, otters, and sloth bears do not exhibit this behavior.

Question 11: Carbon Markets

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

Explanation:

• Statement I: Carbon markets, such as emissions trading systems, are widely recognized as practical tools for reducing greenhouse gas emissions, making this statement correct.
• Statement-II: Carbon markets primarily involve trading carbon credits between private entities, not transferring resources from state to State. This statement is incorrect.

Question 12: Janani Suraksha Yojana

Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
   How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a central government scheme under the National Health Mission, not solely a State health department initiative. This is incorrect.
• Statement 2: JSY aims to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women, which is correct.
• Statement 3: Promoting institutional delivery is a key objective, making this correct.
• Statement 4: JSY includes provisions for sick infants up to one year, so this is correct. Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Question 13: Biofilters in Aquaculture

With reference to the role of biofilters in the Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:

1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water.
   How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Biofilters do not primarily remove uneaten fish feed; they treat organic waste, so this is incorrect.
• Statement 2: Biofilters convert toxic ammonia to nitrate through nitrification, making this correct.
• Statement 3: Biofilters do not increase phosphorus; they may help manage it, but not as a nutrient for fish. This is incorrect. Only Statement 2 is correct.

Question 14: Space Objects

Consider the following pairs:
Objects in space | Description

1. Cepheids | Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
2. Nebulae | Stars that brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars | Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

• Pair 1: Cepheids are stars that brighten and dim periodically, not clouds of dust and gas. This is incorrect.
• Pair 2: Nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas, not stars. This is incorrect.
• Pair 3: Pulsars are neutron stars formed from collapsed massive stars, making this correct. Only one pair is correctly matched.

Question 15: Satellite Navigation Systems

Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Israel
(d) Japan

Answer: (d) Japan

Explanation:
Japan operates the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS), a regional satellite navigation system. Australia, Canada, and Israel do not have their own independent navigation systems.

Question 16: Missile Technology

Consider the following statements:

1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Ballistic missiles are rocket-powered and follow a high-altitude trajectory, not jet-propelled at subsonic speeds. Cruise missiles maintain powered flight throughout, often using jet engines. This is incorrect.
• Statement 2: Agni-V is an intercontinental ballistic missile, not a cruise missile. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, not a ballistic missile. This is incorrect. Neither statement is correct.

Question 17: Mercury Pollution

Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of mercury exposure.
   How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Gold mining, especially artisanal mining, releases mercury into the environment, making this correct.
• Statement 2: Coal-based thermal power plants emit mercury during combustion, contributing to pollution. This is correct.
• Statement 3: Mercury is highly toxic, and no safe exposure level is recognized, making this correct. All statements are accurate.

Question 18: Green Hydrogen

With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in a hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
   How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Green hydrogen can be used in internal combustion engines, though it is less common than fuel cells.
• Statement 2: It can be blended with natural gas for heating or power generation, reducing emissions.
• Statement 3: Hydrogen fuel cells use green hydrogen to power vehicles, a well-established application. All statements are correct.

Question 19: Countries Bordering Ukraine

Consider the following countries:

1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
   How many of the countries mentioned above share a land border with Ukraine?

(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five

Answer: (c) Only four

Explanation:
Ukraine shares land borders with Hungary, Lithuania, Romania, and Poland (not listed). Bulgaria, the Czech Republic, and Latvia do not share a border with Ukraine. Thus, four countries from the list are correct.

Question 20: Earth’s Atmosphere

With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of the isolation.
(c) Infrared waves are primarily absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Answer: (c) Infrared waves are primarily absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.

Explanation:

• Option a: Isolation at the equator is about 2.5 times that at the poles, not 10 times.
• Option b: Infrared rays constitute about half of the isolation, not two-thirds.
• Option c: Infrared waves are absorbed by water vapor in the lower atmosphere, making this correct.
• Option d: Infrared waves are outside the visible spectrum.

Question 21: Tropical Rainforests

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The soil in tropical rainforests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

• Statement I: Tropical rainforest soils are typically nutrient-poor due to rapid leaching.
• Statement-II: High temperature and moisture cause rapid decomposition, which is correct, but leads to nutrient loss, not retention.

Question 22: Coal-Based Thermal Power Plants

With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:

1. None of them uses seawater.
2. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district.
3. None of them is privately owned.
   How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Some plants, like those in coastal areas, use seawater for cooling.
• Statement 2: Many plants are in water-stressed districts, causing environmental concerns.
• Statement 3: Private companies like Adani and Tata operate thermal power plants. None is correct.

Question 23: Wolbachia Method

‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

(a) Controlling the viral diseases by mosquitoes
(b) Converting crop residues into packing material
(c) Producing biodegradable plastics
(d) Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass

Answer: (a) Controlling the spread of viral diseases by mosquitoes

Explanation:
The Wolbachia method involves introducing Wolbachia bacteria into mosquitoes to reduce their ability to transmit viral diseases, such as dengue and Zika.

Question 24: Carbon Capture and Sequestration

Consider the following activities:

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock extensively on farmlands
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
   How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

• Activity 1: Basalt rock weathering captures CO₂.
• Activity 2: Ocean alkalinity enhancement sequesters CO₂.
• Activity 3: Industrial CO₂ capture and storage in mines is a standard sequestration method. All are valid.

Question 25: Aerial Metagenomics

‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

(a) Collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat at one go
(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
(c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
(d) Analysing the genetic makeup of organisms from aircraft

Answer: (a) Collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat at one go

Explanation:
Aerial metagenomics involves sampling environmental DNA (eDNA) from the air to study microbial or organismal diversity in a habitat.

Question 26: Digital Currency

Consider the following statements:

1. Some countries have accepted Bitcoin as a legal tender.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it, such as a timeframe for spending it.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Countries like El Salvador have adopted Bitcoin as legal tender.
• Statement 2: Digital currencies, especially central bank digital currencies (CBDCs), can have programmed conditions like spending timeframes. Both are correct.

Question 27: Financial Term ‘Beta’

In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to

(a) The process of simultaneously buying and selling an asset from different platforms
(b) An investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock in response to changes in the overall stock market

Answer: (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock in response to changes in the overall stock market

Explanation:
Beta is a measure of a stock’s volatility relative to the market. The State Bank of India initially initiated the Self-Help Group (SHG) programme.:

1. The State Bank of India initially launched the Self-Help Group (SHG) program by offering microcredit to financially disadvantaged individuals.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
   How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The SHG program was pioneered by NGOs like MYRADA, not SBI. This is incorrect.
• Statement 2: SHG members collectively guarantee loans, making this correct.
• Statement 3: Regional Rural Banks and commercial banks support SHGs through credit linkages, so this is correct.

Question 29: Public Sector Healthcare in India

Consider the following statement: India’s public sector health care system primarily focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation:

• Statement I: India’s public healthcare emphasizes curative care, with less focus on preventive and rehabilitative services.
• Statement-II: Health is a State subject, so states organize health services. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Question 30: Constitutional Duties and Rights

Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect the States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, a confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
   How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Article 355 mandates the Centre to protect states from internal disturbances. Correct.
• Statement 2: Article 22 allows limited legal counsel rights for preventive detention. Correct.
• Statement 3: The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, allowed confessions as evidence, unlike the general law. Incorrect.

Question 31: Countries with Famine

Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages, and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

(a) Angola
(b) Costa Rica
(c) Ecuador
(d) Somalia

Answer: (d) Somalia

Explanation:
Somalia has faced prolonged civil conflict and recurrent famines, with severe food crises reported in recent years due to drought and instability.

Question 32: Biodiversity Management Committees

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have essential functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees for accessing biological resources within their jurisdiction.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) implement the Nagoya Protocol’s access and benefit-sharing goals in India.
• Statement 2: BMCs regulate access to biological resources and levy fees for benefit-sharing. Both are correct.

Question 33: Election of the President of India

Consider the following statements:

1. The members nominated to either the House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. The higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher the value of the vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of the vote of each MLA in Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater than that of Arunachal Pradesh.
   How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Nominated members are not part of the Electoral College. Incorrect.
• Statement 2: The value of an MLA’s vote is inversely proportional to the number of seats. Correct.
• Statement 3: Madhya Pradesh has a higher MLA vote value than Kerala due to population differences. Correct.
• Statement 4: Puducherry’s MLA vote value is higher due to its population-to-seat ratio. Correct.

Question 34: Indian History and Archaeology

With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were associated with

(a) archaeological excavations
(b) establishment of the English Press in Colonial India
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

Answer: (a) archaeological excavations

Explanation:
These individuals were prominent archaeologists who conducted excavations and documented historical sites in colonial India.

Question 35: Cave Shrines in India

Consider the following pairs:
Site | Well known for

1. Besnagar | Shaivite cave shrine
2. Bhaja | Buddhist cave shrine
3. Sittanavasal | Jain cave shrine
   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

• Pair 1: Besnagar is known for the Heliodorus Pillar, not a Shaivite cave shrine. Incorrect.
• Pair 2: Bhaja is a Buddhist cave shrine. Correct.
• Pair 3: Sittanavasal is a Jain cave shrine. Correct.

Question 36: National Handloom Day

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: August 7 is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II: On August 7, 1905, the Swadeshi Movement was launched.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation:

• Statement I: August 7 is National Handloom Day.
• Statement-II: The Swadeshi Movement began on August 7 t,h 1905, inspiring the choice of this date to promote handlooms. Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Question 37: National Flag of India

Consider the following statements with respect to the National Flag of India, according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and Statement III is the correct explanation for Statement II
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation:

• Statement I: 600 mm × 400 mm is a standard size. Correct.
• Statement-II: The 3:2 ratio is mandated. Correct. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Question 38: Constitution Day

Consider the following statements with respect to the Constitution Day:
Statement I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26 every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: On November 26, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement II-II are correct; Statement II-II is not the correct explanation for Statement I-I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

Explanation I: Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26. Correct.

• Statement-II: The Drafting Committee was formed in 1947, not 1949. The Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949. Incorrect.

Question 39: Global Export and PLI Scheme

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: India accounts for 3.2% of the global export of goods.
Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation:

• Statement I: India’s share in global goods exports is around 3.2%. Correct.
• Statement II: The PLI scheme has benefited many companies. Correct. However, Statement II does not explain the export share.

Question 40: Stability and Growth Pact

Consider the following statements:
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
   How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The Stability and Growth Pact limits budgetary deficits to ensure fiscal discipline. Correct.
• Statement 2: It does not mandate sharing infrastructure. Incorrect.
• Statement 3: Technology sharing is not part of the pact. Incorrect.

Question 41: Global Compact for Migration

Consider the following statements:

1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in some States.
   How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Not all UN countries adopted the GCM in 2018; some abstained or opposed. Incorrect.
• Statement 2: The GCM is non-binding. Incorrect.
• Statement 3: The GCM focuses on international migration, not internal displacement. Incorrect.

Question 42: Legal Actions in India

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Action | The Act under which it is covered

1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms | The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties | The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire, which can endanger the personal safety of others, | The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

• Pair 1: Unauthorized uniform wearing is covered under the Indian Penal Code, not the Official Secrets Act. Incorrect.
• Pair 2: Interfering with officers is under the IPC, not the Indian Evidence Act. Incorrect.
• Pair 3: Celebratory gunfire is regulated under the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019. Correct.

Question 43: Conflict Regions

Consider the following pairs:
Regions often mentioned in the news | Reason for being in the news

1. North Kivu and Ituri | War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
2. Nagorno-Karabakh | Insurgency in Mozambique
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia | Dispute between Israel and Lebanon
   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Pair 1: North Kivu and Ituri are in the Democratic Republic of Congo, known for internal conflict, not Armenia-Azerbaijan. Incorrect.
• Pair 2: Nagorno-Karabakh is linked to Armenia-Azerbaijan, not Mozambique. Incorrect.
• Pair 3: Kherson and Zaporizhzhia are in Ukraine, related to the Russia-Ukraine conflict, not Israel-Lebanon. Incorrect.

Question 44: Israel and Arab States

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and the Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

Explanation:

• Statement I: Israel has normalized relations with countries like the UAE and Bahrain via the Abraham Accords. Correct.
• Statement-II: The Arab Peace Initiative, proposed by Saudi Arabia, was not signed by Israel. Incorrect.

Question 45: Conflict Areas

Consider the following pairs:
Area of conflict mentioned in the news | Country where it is located

1. Donbas | Syria
2. Kachin | Ethiopia
3. Tigray | North Yemen
   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Pair 1: Donbas is in Ukraine, not Syria. Incorrect.
• Pair 2: Kachin is in Myanmar, not Ethiopia. Incorrect.
• Pair 3: Tigray is in Ethiopia, not North Yemen. Incorrect.

Question 46: Coups in Africa

In recent years, Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan have caught international attention for one of the following reasons common to all of them.

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
(c) Southward expansion of the Sahara Desert
(d) Successful coups

Answer: (d) Successful coups

Explanation:
Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan have experienced successful military coups in recent years, drawing global attention.

Question 47: Heavy Industries and Green Hydrogen

Consider the following heavy industries:

1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants
   Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing many of the above industries.

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:
Green hydrogen can replace fossil fuels in fertilizer production, oil refining, and steel manufacturing, aiding decarbonization in all three industries.

Question 48: G-20 Priorities

Consider the following statements about G-20:

1. The G-20 group was initially established as a platform for finance ministers and central bank governors to discuss international economic and financial issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The G-20 was created in 1999 for economic discussions among finance ministers and central bank governors. Correct.
• Statement 2: India emphasized digital public infrastructure during its G-20 presidency. Correct.