IBPS PO Prelims Memory-Based 2024: Questions, Answers, and Detailed Solutions from Previous Year Exam Paper
The IBPS PO Prelims Memory-Based 2024 question paper is a valuable resource for aspirants preparing for banking exams. This article provides all the multiple-choice questions (MCQs) from the IBPS PO Prelims 2024 memory-based paper, along with their correct answers and detailed explanations. Designed to help candidates understand the exam pattern and improve their preparation, “Previous Year Exam Paper“
Reasoning Ability Questions
Directions (1-5): Circular Seating Arrangement
Q1. Who among the following sits second to the right of E?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) F
(e) G
Answer: (e)
Explanation: According to the seating arrangement, E is second to the left of G. Moving second to the right of E, we reach G. Thus, the correct answer is (e) G.
Q2. Which among the following pairs of persons faces the same direction?
(a) G and C
(b) A and E
(c) E and D
(d) C and F
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Explanation: From the arrangement, G and C face the same direction (towards the center). Other pairs do not satisfy this condition, making (a) the correct answer.
Q3. How many persons sit between B and F (counting clockwise from F)?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Two
(e) None
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Counting clockwise from F, only one person sits between F and B, as per the arrangement. Hence, the answer is (a).
Q4. Four of the following five persons are alike in a certain way based on their seating arrangement. Find the odd one.
(a) F
(b) C
(c) B
(d) D
(e) A
Answer: (b)
Explanation: All persons except C face away from the center, while C faces towards the center. Thus, C is the odd one out, making (b) the correct answer.
Q5. Which among the following statements is/are true?
I. G faces towards the centre.
II. Both F and A face away from the centre.
III. Two persons sit between C and D when counted clockwise from D.
(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Both I and II
(d) Both II and III
(e) All I, II, and III
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statement I is true as G faces the center. Statement II is true as both F and A face away from the center. Statement III is false as the number of persons between C and D does not match the condition. Thus, (c) is correct.
Directions (6-8): Family Relationship
Q6. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner; which one is dissimilar to the others?
(a) O
(b) R
(c) P
(d) N
(e) V
Answer: (e)
Explanation: The family tree shows O, R, P, and N are males, while V is female. Thus, V is dissimilar, making (e) the correct answer.
Q7. Who among the following is the V’s grandmother?
(a) T
(b) M
(c) R
(d) O
(e) N
Answer: (b)
Explanation: M is the spouse of O and mother of R, whose daughter-in-law is T, mother of V. Thus, M is V’s grandmother, so (b) is correct.
Q8. What is the relation of P with respect to R?
(a) Son-in-law
(b) Son
(c) Nephew
(d) Daughter
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation: P is married to V, daughter of R and T. Thus, P is R’s son-in-law, making (a) the correct answer.
Word Formation
Q9. If we form a four-letter meaningful word by using the third, fourth, fifth, and seventh letters from the left end of the word ‘EXACTITUDE’, then which of the following will be the second letter of the meaningful word thus formed? If more than one word is formed, mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer.
(a) C
(b) A
(c) X
(d) T
(e) Z
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The word is EXACTITUDE. The third, fourth, fifth, and seventh letters are A, C, T, and U. The only meaningful word formed is TACT, where the second letter is A. Thus, (b) is correct.
Directions (10-14): Age-Based Puzzle
Q10. Who among the following was born in 1967?
(a) N
(b) P
(c) M
(d) O
(e) K
Answer: (d)
Explanation: According to the tableeyWhitney,on born in 19,67, is O (age 57 in 2024). Thus, (d) is correct.
Q11. What is the age difference between M and Q?
(a) 25 years
(b) 24 years
(c) 23 years
(d) 30 years
(e) 20 years
Answer: (c)
Explanation: M’s age is 44 (born 1980), and Q’s age is 21 (born 2003). The difference is 44 – 21 = 23 years. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q12. M was born in which year?
(a) 1973
(b) 1980
(c) 1987
(d) 1967
(e) 1955
Answer: (b)
Explanation: M’s age is 44, corresponding to the year 1980 (2024 – 1980 = 44). Thus, (b) is correct.
Q13. What is the total age of K and N?
(a) 84 years
(b) 65 years
(c) 81 years
(d) 58 years
(e) 70 years
Answer: (e)
Explanation: K’s age is 33 (born 1991), and N’s age is 37 (born 1987). Total = 33 + 37 = 70 years. Thus, (e) is correct.
Q14. If P is related to L, and N is related to Q, then M is related to
(a) K
(b) O
(c) L
(d) None of these
(e) N
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The relationship pattern is based on the sequence of years. P (1955) is related to L (1973), N (1987) to Q (2003), and M (1980) to K (1991). Thus, (a) is correct.
Directions (15-19): Coding-Decoding
Q15. What is the code for ‘same’?
(a) uh
(b) ut
(c) um
(d) ub
(e) ud
Answer: (b)
Explanation: From the coding table, “same” is coded as “ut” or “us” (interchangeable with “game”). Since “ut” is an option, (b) is correct.
Q16. If the code of ‘Jar’ is ‘uh’, then the code of ‘is played’ will be?
(a) ua ud
(b) uw ut
(c) ua us
(d) uw ub
(e) uw ut
Answer: (d)
Explanation: “Jar” is coded as “uh”; “is” is “uw” and “played” is “ub”. Thus, “is played” is “uw ub”, making (d) correct.
Q17. What is the code of ‘play’?
(a) ud
(b) us
(c) uk
(d) ut
(e) um
Answer: (c)
Explanation: From the coding table, “play” is coded as “uk”. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q18. What will be the possible code for ‘game is played’?
(a) uh ud ub
(b) ut us ua
(c) us uh ub
(d) ut ub ud
(e) uh uw uk
Answer: (c)
Explanation: “Game” is “us” or “ut”, “is” is “uw”, and “played” is “ub”. The combination “us uh ub” is not possible, but “us uw ub” is correct (assuming “uh” is a typo). Thus, (c) is accurate.
Q19. Which word is coded as ‘um’?
(a) In
(b) The
(c) Play
(d) Seen
(e) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation: From the coding table, “in” is coded as “um”. Thus, (a) is correct.
Directions (20-24): Linear Seating Arrangement
Q20. Who among the following likes Guava?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) F
(e) None of these
Answer: (d)
Explanation: From the seating arrangement, F likes Guava. Thus, (d) is correct.
Q21. How many people sit between C and the one who likes Orange?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) None
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Two persons sit between C and the person who likes Orange. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q22. Who among the following sits third to the left of the one who likes Guava?
(a) The one who sits immediately left of E
(b) F
(c) The one who likes Orange
(d) A
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The person third to the left of the one who likes Guava (F) is the one immediately left of E. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q23. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C sits to the immediate left of the one who likes Apple.
(b) The one who likes Mango sits 3rd from the extreme right end.
(c) B likes Orange.
(d) A sits third to the left of D.
(e) None is true
Answer: (d)
Explanation: A sits third to the left of D, as per the arrangement. Other statements are false. Thus, (d) is correct.
Q24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) B-Banana
(b) F-Orange
(c) E-Guava
(d) A-Apple
(e) C-Mango
Answer: (e)
Explanation: C-Mango does not fit the pattern of the group based on the arrangement. Thus, (e) is correct.
Odd One Out
Q25. Find the odd one out?
(a) FBI
(b) PLR
(c) EAH
(d) IEL
(e) RNU
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The logic is that the first letter is the fourth letter after the second letter, and the third letter is the third letter after the first letter in the alphabet. PLR does not follow this pattern. Thus, (b) is correct.
Directions (26-30): Box Arrangement Puzzle
Q26. How many boxes are placed between the brass box and box A?
(a) None
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Two
(e) Four
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Three boxes are placed between the brass box (D) and box A. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q27. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Box E is the bottommost box
(b) Box B is a leather box
(c) Box D is placed above box F
(d) Box A and B are adjacent to each other
(e) Box C is a brass box
Answer: (e)
Explanation: Box C is the jute box, not the brass box. Thus, (e) is incorrect.
Q28. Box F is of which type?
(a) Iron
(b) Jute
(c) Brass
(d) Steel
(e) Leather
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Box F is the iron box. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q29. If box E is related to the wood box, box A is related to the leather box, then in a similar manner, which box is related to the jute box?
(a) Box D
(b) Box F
(c) Box B
(d) Box C
(e) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The relationship pattern links boxes to their types. Box F is related to the jute box (C). Thus, (b) is correct.
Q30. As many boxes are placed above box D as below box
(a) Box C
(b) Box B
(c) Box E
(d) Box A
(e) Box F
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The number of boxes above D equals the number below E. Thus, (c) is correct.
Letter Pairs in Alphabet
Q31. In the word ‘ORGANIZE’, how many pairs of letters have the same number of letters between them (both forward and backward direction) in the word as in the alphabet?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) More than four
Answer: (c)
Explanation: In ORGANIZE, only one pair (R and I) has the same number of letters between them in the word (4 letters: G, A, N, I) as in the alphabet (Q, R, S, T, U). Thus, (c) is correct.
Directions (32-34): Family Weight Puzzle
Q32. What is the possible weight of S?
(a) 39 kg
(b) 34 kg
(c) 53 kg
(d) 67 kg
(e) 62 kg
Answer: (c)
Explanation: S is the second heaviest, with possible weights above 40 kg. Among the options, 53 kilograms is plausible. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q33. If R’s weight is 15 kg less than P and 5 kg more than U, then what is the sum of the weights of R and U?
(a) 38 kg
(b) 45 kg
(c) 50 kg
(d) 40 kg
(e) 35 kg
Answer: (b)
Explanation: P’s weight is 40 kg. R = 40 – 15 = 25 kg, U = 25 – 5 = 20 kg. Sum = 25 + 20 = 45 kg. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q34. The number of persons heavier than P is the same as the number of persons lighter than
(a) S
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) P
Answer: (c)
Explanation: P is the third heaviest (40 kg). Two persons are heavier (T, S), and two are lighter (R, U). This matches Q’s position. Thus, (c) is correct.
Word Transformation
Q35. If in the word CONVERSION, we replace the odd position letter with its just next letter and replace all the even position letters (from left) with their just previous letter, then find how many letters are repeated there in the new arrangement?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Three
(e) None
Answer: (e)
Explanation: The word CONVERSION becomes DNOUFQTHPM after transformation. No letters are repeated in this new arrangement. Thus, (e) is correct.
Directions (36-43): Reading Comprehension on Emotional Intelligence
Q36. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(I) Emotional intelligence (EQ) is primarily shaped by biological factors, with little influence from socialization.
(II) Women tend to excel in empathy, social responsibility, and interpersonal relationships according to research.
(III) Assertiveness and stress tolerance are often considered key emotional competencies where men perform better.
(a) Only (I) is true
(b) Both (I) and (III) are true
(c) Both (II) and (III) are true
(d) Only (II) is true
(e) All statements are true
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The passage states that socialization and biological factors shape EQ, making (I) false. (II) and (III) are true as women excel in empathy and men in assertiveness. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q37. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
(a) Men’s assertiveness and self-regard give them an advantage in hierarchical leadership positions.
(b) Women’s relational strengths are particularly well-suited for competitive, high-pressure roles in leadership.
(c) Boys are often encouraged to be decisive and assertive from an early age.
(d) Socialization influences the development of emotional competencies for both genders.
(e) Societal norms reinforce emotional intelligence skills learned in childhood as individuals grow older.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Women’s strengths are suited for teamwork, not competitive leadership roles, making (b) false. Other statements align with the passage. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q38. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true?
(I) Women’s emotional intelligence strengths are undervalued in hierarchical structures, particularly in leadership positions.
(II) Men tend to perform better in teamwork and collaborative settings due to their confidence.
(III) Societal expectations reinforce the emotional competencies that boys and girls develop early in life.
(a) Only (I) is true
(b) Both (I) and (III) are true
(c) Both (II) and (III) are true
(d) Only (II) is true
(e) All statements are true
Answer: (b)
Explanation: (I) and (III) are true as per the passage. (II) It is false as men excel in competitive settings, not teamwork. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q39. Which of the following words has a similar meaning to “lay” (as used in the passage)?
(a) Establish
(b) Cover
(c) Remove
(d) Complicate
(e) Dismiss
Answer: (a)
Explanation: “Lay” in “lay the foundation” means to establish. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q40. Based on the passage, which of the following can be logically inferred about gender differences in emotional intelligence?
(a) Women’s strengths in empathy and interpersonal relationships make them more suitable for leadership roles than men.
(b) Men’s performance in assertiveness and confidence is exclusively the result of societal conditioning, with no biological factors involved.
(c) Organizations that recognize and value both genders’ emotional strengths can create more balanced and effective leadership.
(d) Women are less likely to succeed in competitive environments because they lack confidence and assertiveness.
(e) Emotional intelligence competencies between men and women are so different that they cannot effectively collaborate in professional settings.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The passage implies that valuing both genders’ strengths leads to balanced leadership. Other options are incorrect or exaggerated. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q41. Which of the following can be inferred about the role of societal norms in shaping emotional intelligence, based on the passage?
(a) Societal norms only affect women’s emotional intelligence, particularly in developing empathy and interpersonal skills.
(b) Boys and girls are socialized in a way that equally promotes both assertiveness and empathy in both genders.
(c) Emotional intelligence is fixed and cannot be influenced or altered once societal norms have shaped it during childhood.
(d) Societal expectations reinforce gender-specific emotional skills, leading to men excelling in competitive environments and women in teamwork.
(e) Societal norms do not influence emotional competencies, which are purely biologically determined.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The passage states that societal norms reinforce gender-specific skills, with men excelling in competitive situations and women in collaborative ones. Thus, (d) is correct.
Q42. What is the antonym of “approach”?
(a) Withdraw
(b) Assist
(c) Destroy
(d) Engage
(e) Leverage
Answer: (a)
Explanation: “Approach” means to move closer; “withdraw” means to move away, making it the antonym. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q43. Choose the correct word to fill in the blank: Boys are often ___ to be competitive, confident, assertive, and decisive.
(a) Persuaded
(b) Discouraged
(c) Encouraged
(d) Influenced
(e) Restricted
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The passage states that boys are encouraged to be competitive and assertive. Thus, (c) is correct.
Directions (44-45): Error Detection
Q44. The children’s favorite activities at the camp were hiking through the forest trails.
(a) Favorite
(b) Activities
(c) Trails
(d) Hiking
(e) All are correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation: “Activities” is plural, but the verb “was” is singular. It should be “activity” or “were”. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q45. She felt an overwhelming sense of joy as she watched the sunset, its vibrant colors painting the sky.
(a) Watched
(b) Vibrant
(c) Overwhelming
(d) Joe
(e) All are correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation: “Joe” is a misspelling of “joy”. Thus, (d) is correct.
Directions (46-48): Grammatical Correctness
Q46. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually correct.
(I) The team has worked really hard and deserves all of the praise they are receiving.
(II) She was excited to start her new job, but her nervousness was affecting her confidence.
(III) Each of the students was required to submit their projects before the deadline.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Answer: (d)
Explanation: (I) and (II) are correct. (III) is incorrect as “each” is singular, requiring “was”. Thus, (d) is accurate.
Q47. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually incorrect.
(I) The manager, along with her team, was discussing the upcoming project in great detail.
(II) If I had known about the event earlier, I would have definitely attended it.
(III) The city has experienced a significant drop in crime rates, mainly due to new safety measures implemented last year.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Answer: (d)
Explanation: (I) is incorrect (“was” should replace “were”). (II) is wrong (“had known” should replace “would have known”). (III) is correct. Thus, (d) is correct.
Q48. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually correct.
(I) If you had studied harder, you could have passed the exam.
(II) Despite the rain, the outdoor event went on as planned, attracting a large crowd.
(III) The company’s profits have been steadily increasing due to its new marketing strategy.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
Answer: (b)
Explanation: (I) is incorrect (“had studied” should replace “would have studied”). (II) and (III) are correct. Thus, (b) is accurate.
Directions (49-53): Paragraph Rearrangement
Q49. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) B
(d) E
(e) C
Answer: (e)
Explanation: The correct sequence is C-D-E-B-F-A. C introduces the bed bug outbreak in Paris, making it the first sentence. Thus, (e) is accurate.
Q50. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) E
(d) D
(e) C
Answer: (d)
Explanation: D discusses the concerns of residents and tourists, following C logically. Thus, (d) is correct.
Q51. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) E
(c) D
(d) A
(e) F
Answer: (b)
Explanation: E explains the reasons for the spread, following D. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q52. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) E
(c) D
(d) C
(e) A
Answer: (a)
Explanation: B elaborates on the spread to public transport and tourist areas, following E. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q53. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) A
(d) D
(e) F
Answer: (c)
Explanation: A concludes with the government’s response, making it the last sentence. Thus, (c) is correct.
Directions (54-55): Grammatical Correctness
Q54. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually correct.
(I) The children were playing in the garden while their parents watched.
(II) By the time we arrived, the concert had already started.
(III) Neither of the candidates was prepared for the final interview.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
(e) Only (II)
Answer: (e)
Explanation: (I) is incorrect (“were” should replace “was”). (III) is wrong (“was” should replace “were”). (II) is correct. Thus, (e) is correct.
Q55. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually incorrect.
(I) The students who have completed the assignments on time will receive extra credit from their instructor.
(II) Despite the heavy traffic, we managed to reach the airport on time for our flight.
(III) She has been working on the project for six months, but there is still a lot left to do.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Answer: (b)
Explanation: (II) is incorrect (“Despite” should replace “Despite of”). (III) is wrong (“for” should replace “since”). (I) is correct. Thus, (b) is correct.
Directions (56-57): Error Detection
Q56. When the crown was placed on the head of the newest king, all the people at the coronation went wild with praise.
(a) Priase
(b) Newest
(c) Crown
(d) Coronation
(e) All are correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation: “Priase” is a misspelling of “praise”. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q57. Because we did nothing but sit in the hotel room, our vaccination was vapid and uninteresting.
(a) Vaccination
(b) Vapid
(c) Hotel
(d) Uninteresting
(e) All are correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation: “Vaccination” is a misspelling of “vacation”. Thus, (a) is correct.
Directions (58-62): Fill in the Blank
Q58. She decided to donate a portion of her earnings to the local organization that supports underprivileged children.
(a) Atrocity
(b) Clarity
(c) Calamity
(d) Acidity
(e) Charity
Answer: (e)
Explanation: “Charity” fits the context of supporting underprivileged children. Other options are irrelevant. Thus, (e) is correct.
Q59. The art gallery hosted an exhibition featuring works from some of the most renowned artists in the world.
(a) Ignorant
(b) Latent
(c) Removable
(d) Prestigious
(e) Religious
Answer: (d)
Explanation: “Prestigious” describes renowned artists. Other options do not fit. Thus, (d) is correct.
Q60. The book had a/an impact on her perspective, changing the way she viewed the world.
(a) Profound
(b) Tripping
(c) Encroach
(d) Overseas
(e) Accurately
Answer: (a)
Explanation: “Profound” describes a significant impact. Other options are inappropriate. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q61. The sudden power outage threw the entire city into chaos with traffic jams and confused crowds everywhere.
(a) Concur
(b) Chaos
(c) Growth
(d) Peculiar
(e) Nascent
Answer: (b)
Explanation: “Chaos” describes disorder caused by a power outage. Other options do not fit. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q62. Once the switch was flipped, the machine began operating smoothly.
(a) Weltered
(b) Invoked
(c) Activated
(d) Captivated
(e) Deactivated
Answer: (c)
Explanation: “Activated” means starting the machine. Other options are incorrect. Thus, (c) is correct.
Directions (63-65): Phrasal Verbs
Q63. Choose the best set of alternatives that correctly uses the phrasal verb “come up”.
(A) The issue of parking spaces came up during the meeting, and we spent an hour discussing it.
(B) An interesting opportunity came up, so I decided to apply for the job.
(C) The sun will come up in the west tomorrow, according to the weather report.
(a) Both A & B
(b) Only C
(c) Both B & C
(d) Only A
(e) Both A & C
Answer: (a)
Explanation: “Come up” means to arise or become available. (A) and (B) use it correctly; (C) is factually incorrect. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q64. Choose the best set of alternatives that has incorrectly used the phrasal verb “get across”.
(A) They got across the mountain by taking a shortcut through the forest.
(B) The presenter used charts and examples to get across the complex datransparentlyner.
(C) The speaker used visuals to get across his point effectively to the audience.
(a) Both A & B
(b) Only C
(c) Both B & C
(d) Only A
(e) Both A & C
Answer: (d)
Explanation: “Get across” means to communicate. (A) incorrectly uses it for physical crossing; (B) and (C) are correct. Thus, (d) is accurate.
Q65. Choose the best set of alternatives that correctly uses the phrasal verb “check out”.
(A) Before you leave the hotel, don’t forget to check out at the reception desk.
(B) I’m going to the library to check out some books for my research paper.
(C) You should check out that new restaurant downtown; I’ve heard great things about it.
(a) Only A
(b) Both A & C
(c) Both B & C
(d) All A, B, C
(e) Only B
Answer: (d)
Explanation: All three sentences correctly use “check out” in different contexts (leaving, borrowing, investigating). Thus, (d) is correct.
Directions (66-70): Data Interpretation (Table)
Q66. If the total number of cars sold by Y in city K is two-fifths of the total number of bikes sold by Y in city K, then find the difference between the total number of cars sold by X in city K and the bikes sold by X in city M.
(a) 22
(b) 16
(c) 23
(d) 15
(e) 18
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Cars sold by Y in K = 2/5 × 210 = 84. Cars sold by X in K = 450 – 84 = 366. Bikes sold by X in M = 350. Difference = 366 – 350 = 16. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q67. Total number of cars sold by X in city N is 20% less than the total number of bikes sold by X in city M. Find the ratio of the total number of cars sold by Y in city N to the total number of bikes sold by Y in city K.
(a) 3:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 2:3
(d) 1:4
(e) 1:3
Answer: (e)
Explanation: Cars sold by X in N = 80% × 350 = 280. Cars sold by Y in N = 350 – 280 = 70. Bikes sold by Y in K = 210. Ratio = 70:210 = 1:3. Thus, (e) is correct.
Q68. The ratio of the total number of cars sold by X to Y in city L is 3:4, respectively. Find the total number of cars sold by X in city L, how many more or fewer than the total number of bikes sold by Y in N.
(a) 225
(b) 210
(c) 195
(d) 145
(e) 125
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Cars sold by X in L = 980 × 3/7 = 420. Bikes sold by Y in N = 195. Difference = 420 – 195 = 225. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q69. The total number of bikes sold by X in city M is what percentage more or less than the total number of cars sold by X and Y together in city N?
(a) 2%
(b) 0%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
(e) 7.5%
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Bikes sold by X in M = 350. Cars sold by X and Y in N = 350. Percentage = (350 – 350)/350 × 100 = 0%. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q70. The total number of cars sold by Y in city M is 200 more than the total number of bikes sold by X in city L. The total number of cars sold by X in city M is what percentage of the total number of cars sold by X and Y together in city K?
(a) 64%
(b) 58%
(c) 42%
(d) 79%
(e) 82%
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Cars sold by Y in M = 200 + 240 = 440. Cars sold by X in M = 730 – 440 = 290. Cars sold by X and Y in K = 450. Percentage = 290/450 × 100 ≈ 64%. Thus, (a) is correct.
Directions (71-75): Data Interpretation (Line Graph)
Q71. Total number of items sold by D in 2023 is what percentage less than the total number of items sold by A in 2022 (approx.)?
(a) 23%
(b) 19%
(c) 11%
(d) 15%
(e) 8%
Answer: (c)
Explanation: D in 2023 = 1872, A in 2022 = 2100. Percentage = (2100 – 1872)/2100 × 100 ≈ 11%. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q72. Find the ratio of the total number of items sold by B in 2022 to the total number of items sold by C in 2023.
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:3
(c) 3:2
(d) 3:4
(e) 4:5
Answer: (c)
Explanation: B in 2022 = 1620, C in 2023 = 1080. Ratio = 1620:1080 = 3:2. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q73. Find the difference between the total number of items sold by D and E together in 2023 and the total number of items sold by A and B together in 2021.
(a) 180
(b) 194
(c) 150
(d) 158
(e) 100
Answer: (a)
Explanation: D + E in 2023 = 1872 + 1008 = 2880. A + B in 2021 = 1800 + 1260 = 3060. Difference = 3060 – 2880 = 180. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q74. Find the sum of the total number of items sold by A, B, and C in 2023.
(a) 4235
(b) 4450
(c) 4980
(d) 4752
(e) 4898
Answer: (d)
Explanation: A + B + C in 2023 = 2160 + 1512 + 1080 = 4752. Thus, (d) is correct.
Q75. The total number of items sold by B and D together in 2023 is how many more or fewer than the total number of items sold by A in all three years together.
(a) 2676
(b) 2194
(c) 2150
(d) 2058
(e) 2100
Answer: (a)
Explanation: B + D in 2023 = 1512 + 1872 = 3384. A in all years = 1800 + 2100 + 2160 = 6060. Difference = 6060 – 3384 = 2676. Thus, (a) is correct.
Directions (76-80): Number Series
Q76. 188, 177, 199, 166, 210, 150, 221
(a) 188
(b) 221
(c) 150
(d) 199
(e) 210
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The pattern alternates subtraction and addition: -11, +22, -33, +44, -55, +66. The sixth term should be 155 (210 – 55), not 150. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q77. 18225, 6075, 2025, 675, 220, 75, 25
(a) 25
(b) 75
(c) 220
(d) 18225
(e) 6075
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The pattern is division by 3: 18225 ÷ 3 = 6075, 6075 ÷ 3 = 2025, …, 225 ÷ 3 = 75. The fifth term should be 225, not 220. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q78. 210, 228, 250, 274, 302, 332, 365
(a) 302
(b) 332
(c) 210
(d) 250
(e) 365
Answer: (e)
Explanation: The pattern is +18, +22, +24, +28, +30, +34. The seventh term should be 366, not 365. Thus, (e) is correct.
Q79. 304, 300, 316, 332, 364, 428, 556
(a) 300
(b) 316
(c) 304
(d) 332
(e) 428
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The pattern is +4, +8, +16, +32, +64, +128. The second term should be 308, not 300. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q80. 2194, 2175, 2152, 2123, 2092, 2054, 2014
(a) 2014
(b) 2054
(c) 2194
(d) 2092
(e) 2123
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The pattern is -19, -23, -29, -31, -37, -41. The sixth term should be 2055, not 2054. Thus, (b) is correct.
Directions (81-85): Approximation
Q81. 5.03% of 39.89 + 10.09% of 450 = ?
(a) 44
(b) 47
(c) 39
(d) 54
(e) 59
Answer: (b)
Explanation: 5% of 40 + 10% of 450 = 2 + 45 = 47. Thus, (b) is correct.
**Q82. √840. ürünleri
System: Answer: (a)
Explanation: √841 ≈ 29, 14/19 × 361 ≈ 266. Total = 29 + 266 = 295. 295 ÷ 5 ≈ 59. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q83. 12.21³ – 108.02 = 24.90% of 399 + ?
(a) 1090
(b) 1120
(c) 1240
(d) 1520
(e) 1130
Answer: (d)
Explanation: 12³ = 1728, 1728 – 108 = 1620. 25% of 400 = 100. 1620 – 100 = 1520. Thus, (d) is correct.
Q84. (32.08% of 599) / 1.99 ÷ 1/4 = ?² – 16
(a) 29
(b) 24
(c) 17
(d) 12
(e) 20
Answer: (e)
Explanation: 32% of 600 ÷ 2 × 4 = 96 × 4 = 384. 384 + 16 = 400. √400 = 20. Thus, (e) is correct.
Q85. (256.03 / 15.99 ÷ 3.98 / 1.99) =? ÷ 12.01
(a) 91
(b) 96
(c) 103
(d) 87
(e) 67
Answer: (b)
Explanation: 256 ÷ 16 ÷ 2 = 8. 8 × 12 = 96. Thus, (b) is correct.
Quantitative Aptitude Questions
Q86. A, B, and C together can do a work in 4 days, while B alone can do the same work in 24 days. If the efficiency of C is 300% more than that of B, then find the difference between the number of days taken by A and C to complete the work alone?
(a) 18
(b) 12
(c) 11
(d) 15
(e) 20
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Total work = 24 units. Efficiency of A, B, and C together = 6 units/day. B’s efficiency = 1 unit/day. C’s efficiency = 4 units/day. A’s efficiency = 6 – 1 – 4 = 1 unit/day. Days for A = 24, days for C = 6. Difference = 24 – 6 = 18. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q87. The ratio of the present age of P to the age of Q four years ago is 2:1. The present age of R is equal to the average of the present age of P and Q. 16 years ago, the age of R was 10 years. Find the sum of the present age of P, Q, and R (in years)?
(a) 66 years
(b) 78 years
(c) 82 years
(d) 99 years
(e) 102 years
Answer: (b)
Explanation: R’s present age = 10 + 16 = 26. Let P’s age = 2x, Q’s age = x + 4. R = (2x + x + 4)/2 = 26. 3x + 4 = 52, x = 16. P = 32, Q = 20, R = 26. Sum = 32 + 20 + 26 = 78. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q88. An amount of Rs. 12,200 is partly invested in scheme A at 10% p.a. on compound interest for two years and in scheme B at the same rate on simple interest for four years. If the interest received from both the schemes is equal, then find the amount invested in scheme A.
(a) Rs. 4350
(b) Rs. 4340
(c) Rs. 4200
(d) Rs. 8000
(e) Rs. 8500
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Let amount in scheme A = X. Scheme A interest = X × 21%. Scheme B interest = (12200 – X) × 40%. X × 0.21 = (12200 – X) × 0.4. X = 8000. Thus, (d) is correct.
Q89. A, B, and C started a business with investments of Rs. 12,000, Rs. 12,000, and Rs. 8,000, respectively. B invested only for ‘x’ months, while C left the business ‘x’ months before a year. If A got Rs. 1800 out of an annual profit of Rs. 3200, then find the value of ‘x’?
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 4
(e) 5
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Profit ratio = 36:3x:2(12 – x). A’s share = 36/(60 + x) × 3200 = 1800. x = 4. Thus, (d) is correct.
Q90. Train A crosses a 230-meter-long platform in 29 seconds, and Train B crosses a 150-meter-long platform in 24 seconds. Train B, having a length of 450 meters, crosses train A in 160 seconds while running in the same direction. Find how much time train A will take to cross a 50-meter-long bridge (Speed of train B > speed of train A)?
(a) 16 seconds
(b) 22 seconds
(c) 20 seconds
(d) 17 seconds
(e) 25 seconds
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Length of train A = 350 m, speed = 20 m/s. Time to cross a 50 m bridge = (350 + 50)/20 = 20 seconds. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q91. The ratio of the speed of a boat in still water to the speed of the boat in upstream is 4:3. The boat covers 560 km in 7 hours downstream. Find the time taken by the boat to cover a 480 km distance upstream?
(a) 8 hours
(b) 9 hours
(c) 7 hours
(d) 5 hours
(e) 10 hours
Answer: (e)
Explanation: Speed in still water = 4m, upstream = 3m, downstream = 5m. 560/5m = 7, m = 16. Upstream time = 480/(3 × 16) = 10 hours. Thus, (e) is correct.
Q92. A marks an article 60% above its cost price. When he allows a 4d% discount on the marked price, he earns a 28% profit. If he allows a 6%% discount, then find the profit or loss %.
(a) 12%
(b) 15%
(c) 18%
(d) 20%
(e) 24%
Answer: (a)
Explanation: CP = 100x, MP = 160x, SP = 128x, d = 5. New SP = 160x × 0.7 = 112x. Profit = 12%. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q93. The ratio of milk and water in mixture A is 9:5. The quantity of milk in mixture B is 20% more than that in mixture A, and the quantity of water in mixture A is 25% more than that in mixture B. If the sum of the quantity of water of both mixtures is 54 liters, then find the total quantity of mixture A?
(a) 72 liters
(b) 64 liters
(c) 84 liters
(d) 75 liters
(e) 80 liters
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Milk in A = 9l, water = 5l. Milk in B = 54l/5, water in B = 4l. 5l + 4l = 54, l = 6. Total quantity of A = 14l = 84 liters. Thus, (c) is correct.
Q94. The average weight of 24 boys and six girls in a class is 40 kg. If the weight of all the girls is excluded, the average weight of the class is reduced by 4 kg, then find the average weight of all the six girls?
(a) 52 kg
(b) 56 kg
(c) 58 kg
(d) 55 kg
(e) 51 kg
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Total weight = 30 × 40 = 1200 kg. Boys’ weight = 24 × 36 = 864 kg. Girls’ weight = 1200 – 864 = 336 kg. Average = 336/6 = 56 kg. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q95. The ratio of the area of a square and the area of a rectangle is 3:2, respectively. The side of the square is equal to the length of the rectangle. The perimeter of the rectangle is 40 meters, so find the breadth of the rectangle?
(a) 12 m
(b) 8 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 15 m
(e) 17 m
Answer: (b)
Explanation: l²/lb = 3/2, l/b = 3/2. 2(3x + 2x) = 40, x = 4. Breadth = 2x = 8 m. Thus, (b) is correct.
Directions (96-100): Games Data Interpretation
Q96. Find the ratio of the total games won by A and the total games lost by C.
(a) 2:1
(b) 1:1
(c) 1:3
(d) 4:3
(e) 5:2
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A wins = 120, C loses = 120. Ratio = 120:120 = 1:1. Thus, (b) is correct.
Q97. Total games lost by B is what percentage of the total games won by A?
(a) 66.67%
(b) 32.5%
(c) 8.33%
(d) 62.5%
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Explanation: B loses = 80, A wins = 120. Percentage = 80/120 × 100 = 66.67%. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q98. Find the sum of the total games lost by B and A.
(a) 210
(b) 220
(c) 250
(d) 320
(e) 240
Answer: (e)
Explanation: B loses = 80, A loses = 160. Sum = 80 + 160 = 240. Thus, (e) is correct.
Q99. If the total games lost by D are 25% more than that of A, and the total games won by D are five more than half of the total games won by C, then find the difference between the total games lost and total games won by D.
(a) 147
(b) 149
(c) 142
(d) 139
(e) 129
Answer: (a)
Explanation: D loses = 5/4 × 160 = 200. D wins = 96/2 + 5 = 53. Difference = 200 – 53 = 147. Thus, (a) is correct.
Q100. Find the average of total games won by A & B and total games lost by C.
(a) 98.25
(b) 91.67
(c) 83.33
(d) 96.67
(e) 129
Answer: (d)
Explanation: A wins = 120, B wins = 50, C loses = 120. Average = (120 + 50 + 120)/3 = 96.67. Thus, (d) is correct.
This guide of IBPS PO Prelims Memory-Based 2024 question paper provides detailed solutions to help aspirants excel in their preparation. Use this Previous Year Exam Paper to understand the exam pattern, practice similar questions, and boost your confidence for the upcoming IBPS PO exam.
