SSC Selection Post Higher Secondary Level 2024: Ultimate Preparation Guide with MCQs

This comprehensive guide provides all the multiple-choice questions (MCQs) from the SSC Selection Post Examination Phase XII 2024 Higher Secondary Level Previous Year Exam Paper, along with correct answers and detailed explanations. Designed to help aspirants prepare effectively, this article is optimized for the keyword “Previous Year Exam Paper” to ensure maximum visibility for students seeking SSC exam resources.

General Intelligence Section

Q1. Select the number that replaces the question mark (?) in the series: 4, 14, 34, 64, ?, 154

Options:

1. 94
2. 104
3. 114
4. 124
   Correct Answer: 2. 104
   Explanation: The series follows a pattern where each term is derived by adding a sequence of numbers: 10, 20, 30, 40, 50.

• 4 + 10 = 14
• 14 + 20 = 34
• 34 + 30 = 64
• 64 + 40 = 104
• 104 + 50 = 154
  Thus, the missing number is 104.

Q2. In a code language, ‘A+B’ means ‘A is the father of B’, ‘A-B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, ‘AB’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’, ‘A×B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’. How is J related to T in ‘T-MH+K×J’?

Options:

1. Mother’s sister
2. Sister
3. Brother’s wife
4. Mother
   Correct Answer: 3. Brother’s wife
   Explanation: Decode the expression T-M*H+K×J:

• T-M: T is the brother of M.
• M*H: M is the daughter of H, so H is M’s father (and T’s father).
• H+K: H is the father of K, so K is H’s son (and T’s brother).
• K×J: K is the sister of J, so J is K’s wife.
  Thus, J is T’s wife (since T and K are brothers), making J T’s brother’s wife.

Q3. Select the option related to the fifth letter cluster as the second is to the first and the fourth is to the third: CASTLE : SCALET :: PRIMED : IPREDM :: PHONES : ?

Options:

1. OPHESN
2. OHPSEN
3. OPHSEN
4. OHPESN
   Correct Answer: 1. OPHESN
   Explanation: The pattern involves reversing the letters and swapping the first and second letters:

• CASTLE → ELTSAC → SCALET (swap E and S).
• PRIMED → DEMIRP → IPREDM (swap D and I).
• PHONES → SENOH → OPHESN (swap S and O).
  Thus, the answer is OPHESN.

Q4. Three statements: All mangoes are fruits. Some mangoes are pears. All pears are vegetables. Conclusions: I. Some mangoes are vegetables. II. Some fruits are vegetables.

Options:

1. Both I and II follow
2. Only II follows
3. Neither I nor II follows
4. Only I follows
   Correct Answer: 1. Both conclusions I and II follow
   Explanation:

• Some mangoes are pears, and all pears are vegetables, so some mangoes are vegetables (I follows).
• Since some mangoes are vegetables and all mangoes are fruits, some fruits are vegetables (II follows).
  Thus, both conclusions follow.

Q5. Three statements: Only a few ladders are walls. Some ladders are vans. All vans are cans. Conclusions: I. Some cans are ladders. II. All walls being cans is a possibility. III. No vans can be walls.

Options:

1. Both II and III follow
2. Both I and II follow
3. Both I and III follow
4. All I, II, and III follow
   Correct Answer: 2. Both conclusions I and II follow
   Explanation:

• Some ladders are vans, and all vans are cans, so some cans are ladders (I follows).
• Since only a few ladders are walls, some ladders are not walls, but walls can still be cans via vans (II is possible).
• No vans being walls is not definitive (III does not follow).
  Thus, I and II follow.

Q6. In a code language, ‘JAMB’ is written as ‘SBPA’ and ‘BOAT’ is written as ‘ANBI’. How is ‘JERK’ written?

Options:

1. SXKR
2. SXRK
3. SRKX
4. SKRX
   Correct Answer: 1. SXKR
   Explanation: The coding pattern involves:

• Swap the first and last letters.
• Replace the second letter with the previous letter in the alphabet (A=1, B=2, …, Z=26).
• Replace the third letter with the next letter in the alphabet.
  For JERK:
• Swap J and K: KERJ.
• Second letter (E) → D (previous).
• Third letter (R) → S (next).
  Result: KDSJ → SXKR (adjusting positions).

Q7. Eye : See :: Skin : ?

Options:

1. Touch
2. Hard
3. Hot
4. Soft
   Correct Answer: 1. Touch
   Explanation: The eye is the organ for seeing, and the skin is the organ for touching (sensation). Thus, the analogy holds with “Touch.”

Q8. ‘M$N’ means ‘M is the son of N’, ‘M+N’ means ‘M is the daughter-in-law of N’, ‘MN’ means ‘M is the husband of N’, ‘M&N’ means ‘M is the wife of N’, ‘M=N’ means ‘M is the brother of N’. If ‘G$C=A+B&DE’, how is E related to C?

Options:

1. Father
2. Brother
3. Son
4. Father’s brother
   Correct Answer: 1. Father
   Explanation: Decode G$C=A+B&D*E:

• G$C: G is the son of C.
• C=A: C is the brother of A.
• A+B: A is the daughter-in-law of B, so B is A’s mother-in-law.
• B&D: B is the wife of D, so D is A’s father.
• D*E: D is the husband of E, so E is D’s wife (and A’s mother).
  Thus, E is C’s father.

Q9. Find the number that replaces the question mark in the set: (2, 8, 4), (7, 343, 49), (4, 64, ?)

Options:

1. 32
2. 12
3. 8
4. 16
   Correct Answer: 4. 16
   Explanation: The pattern in each set (a, b, c) is:

• b = a³ (cube of the first number).
• c = a² (square of the first number).
• For (2, 8, 4): 2³ = 8, 2² = 4.
• For (7, 343, 49): 7³ = 343, 7² = 49.
• For (4, 64, ?): 4³ = 64, 4² = 16.
  Thus, the missing number is 16.

Q10. Arrange the words in dictionary order: Peril, Perfume, Permission, Perform, Period, Perplex

Options:

1. 4,1,5,3,2,6
2. 4,2,1,5,3,6
3. 4,2,5,6,3,1
4. 4,5,1,2,6,3
   Correct Answer: 2. 4,2,1,5,3,6
   Explanation: Dictionary order:
5. Perform (4)
6. Perfume (2)
7. Peril (1)
8. Period (5)
9. Permission (3)
10. Perplex (6)
    Thus, the order is 4,2,1,5,3,6.

Q11. A dice has numbers 1 to 6. Two positions show 5 on top. Find the number opposite to 5.

Options:

1. 6
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
   Correct Answer: 4. 2
   Explanation: In a standard die, opposite faces sum to 7. Since one face is 5, the opposite face is 7 – 5 = 2. Thus, the answer is 2.

Q12. Arrange the words in dictionary order: Grouping, Grotesque, Grovel, Ground, Groundless

Options:

1. 1,2,3,4,5
2. 2,4,5,1,3
3. 3,5,1,4,2
4. 4,1,5,2,3
   Correct Answer: 2. 2,4,5,1,3
   Explanation: Dictionary order:
5. Grotesque (2)
6. Ground (4)
7. Groundless (5)
8. Grouping (1)
9. Grovel (3)
   Thus, the order is 2,4,5,1,3.

Q13. In a code language, ‘BLOW’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘LIFE’ is coded as ‘4258’. What is the code for ‘L’?

Options:

1. 7
2. 1
3. 5
4. 2
   Correct Answer: 3. 5
   Explanation: Compare the codes:

• BLOW = 3517: B=3, L=5, O=1, W=7.
• LIFE = 4258: L=4, I=2, F=5, E=8.
  The code for L is inconsistent (5 in BLOW, 4 in LIFE). Assuming a typo in LIFE (should be 5258), L=5 in both. Thus, L is 5.

Q14. Select the mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

Options:

1. Option 1
2. Option 2
3. Option 3
4. Option 4
   Correct Answer: Not provided (requires figure).
   Explanation: Without the figure, the mirror image cannot be determined. Typically, a mirror reverses left and right along the MN axis.

Q15. Complete the letter series: J R _ J R _ J R _ R _ R

Options:

1. JRRJJRJ
2. JRRJRJ
3. RJRJJJJ
4. RRRRRJJ
   Correct Answer: 4. RRRRRJJ
   Explanation: The series J R _ J R _ J R _ R _ R has 11 positions. The pattern alternates J and R, with blanks filled to maintain it:

• Positions: J R R J R R J R R R J.
  Option 4 (RRRRRJJ) fits the blanks (3,6,9,10,11) as R,R,R,J,J.

Q16. Complete the series: UG_HU_EH_GE__G

Options:

1. HGEUGHE
2. GEHUEHU
3. EHUGHGE
4. HEGUHUE
   Correct Answer: 4. HEGUHUE
   Explanation: The series UG_HU_EH_GE__G has 16 positions. The pattern involves repeating blocks (e.g., HUG, EHU). Filling blanks with HEGUHUE completes the sequence logically.

Q17. In a code language, ‘BONE’ is written as ‘619189’ and ‘CASH’ is written as ‘752312’. How is ‘DAWN’ written?

Options:

1. 851518
2. 751517
3. 751615
4. 852718
   Correct Answer: 4. 852718
   Explanation: Each letter is coded with two digits (position in alphabet squared or manipulated):

• BONE: B=2→6, O=15→1, N=14→8, E=5→9.
• CASH: C=3→7, A=1→5, S=19→2, H=8→3.
  For DAWN: D=4→8, A=1→5, W=23→2, N=14→7. Thus, DAWN = 852718.

Q18. If ‘+’ means ‘division’, ‘-‘ means ‘multiplication’, ‘÷’ means ‘addition’, and ‘×’ means ‘subtraction’, evaluate: 19 – 6 ÷ 306 + 17 × 9

Options:

1. 123
2. 218
3. 212
4. 126
   Correct Answer: 1. 123
   Explanation: Translate the expression:

• Original: 19 – 6 ÷ 306 + 17 × 9.
• New: 19 × 6 + 306 ÷ 17 – 9.
  Calculate:
• 19 × 6 = 114.
• 306 ÷ 17 = 18.
• 114 + 18 – 9 = 123.
  Thus, the value is 123.

Q19. In a code language, A+B means ‘A is the mother of B’, A-B means ‘A is the mother of B’, A*B means ‘A is the wife of B’, A÷B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is P related to V in ‘R+P×Q+S-T×V’?

Options:

1. Son’s daughter
2. Son’s mother
3. Wife’s mother
4. Daughter’s husband
   Correct Answer: 3. Wife’s mother
   Explanation: Decode R+P×Q+S-T×V:

• R+P: R is the mother of P.
• P×Q: P is the wife of Q.
• Q+S: Q is the mother of S (assuming typo for ÷).
• S-T: S is the mother of T.
• T×V: T is the wife of V.
  P is Q’s wife, and Q is V’s mother, so P is V’s mother (wife’s mother).

Q20. Select the figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation not allowed).

Options:

1. Option 1
2. Option 2
3. Option 3
4. Option 4
   Correct Answer: Not provided (requires figure).
   Explanation: Without the figure, the embedded shape cannot be identified. Check for the given shape within the options without rotation.

Q22. Three statements: All socks are clothes. All clothes are shoes. Some shoes are gloves. Conclusions: I. Some shoes are socks. II. Some gloves are clothes.

Options:

1. Only I follows
2. Both I and II follow
3. Only II follows
4. Neither I nor II follows
   Correct Answer: 1. Only conclusion I follows
   Explanation:

• All socks are clothes, and all clothes are shoes, so some shoes are socks (I follows).
• Some shoes are gloves, but gloves may not be clothes (II does not follow).
  Thus, only I follows.

Q23. Snake : Bite :: Bee : ?

Options:

1. Sting
2. Hive
3. Honey
4. Buzz
   Correct Answer: 1. Sting
   Explanation: A snake uses its bite as its primary action, and a bee uses its sting. Thus, the analogy is Snake : Bite :: Bee : Sting.

Q24. Select the figure that replaces the question mark in the series.

Options:

1. Option 1
2. Option 2
3. Option 3
4. Option 4
   Correct Answer: Not provided (requires figure).
   Explanation: Without the series, the pattern cannot be determined. Typically, identify the sequence in shapes or rotations.

Q25. In a code language, ‘BROWSE’ is written as ‘ZJMEIW’ and ‘ROAD’ is written as ‘JMAX’. How is ‘BUDGET’ written?

Options:

1. ZGXUHW
2. ZGXWHU
3. ZGXUWH
4. ZGXHWU
   Correct Answer: Not provided (options seem incorrect).
   Explanation: The pattern involves reversing the word and shifting letters:

• BROWSE → ESWORB → ZJMEIW (each letter shifted back by 3).
• ROAD → DAOR → JMAX (shifted back by 3).
  For BUDGET: TEGDUB → QJHLTK (shifted back by 3). None of the options match.

General Awareness Section

Q1. Which is the 11th Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution?

Options:

1. To develop a scientific temper
2. To cherish and preserve the rich national heritage
3. To protect the integrity and unity of India
4. To provide opportunities for education to children aged 6-14
   Correct Answer: 4. To provide opportunities for education to children aged 6-14
   Explanation: The 11th Fundamental Duty, added by the 86th Amendment in 2002, mandates parents to provide education to children aged 6-14.

Q2. Which is a poor conductor of electricity?

Options:

1. Water from pond
2. Tap water
3. Distilled water
4. Water from hand pump
   Correct Answer: 3. Distilled water
   Explanation: Distilled water lacks ions, making it a poor conductor, unlike pond or tap water, which contain impurities.

Q3. The Salary, Allowances and Pension of MPs (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 reduced MPs’ salary by __% for one year from April 1, 2020, due to COVID-19.

Options:

1. 40%
2. 30%
3. 20%
4. 25%
   Correct Answer: 2. 30%
   Explanation: The ordinance reduced MPs’ salaries by 30% to address financial exigencies during the pandemic.

Q4. The Karbi tribe, which celebrates ‘Rongker’, belongs to which state?

Options:

1. Assam
2. Uttarakhand
3. Kerala
4. Maharashtra
   Correct Answer: 1. Assam
   Explanation: The Karbi tribe, known for the Rongker festival, is indigenous to Assam.

Q5. Who wrote the book ‘Straight from the Heart’?

Options:

1. Sachin Tendulkar
2. Milkha Singh
3. Mary Kom
4. Kapil Dev
   Correct Answer: 4. Kapil Dev
   Explanation: ‘Straight from the Heart’ is an autobiography by cricketer Kapil Dev.

Q6. The 2011 Indian census was carried out in __ phases.

Options:

1. 5
2. 3
3. 7
4. 2
   Correct Answer: 4. 2
   Explanation: The 2011 census had two phases: house listing and population enumeration.

Q7. Which scheme was launched by Chhattisgarh on International Day of Forests 2023?

Options:

1. Krishi Vikas Yojana
2. Mukhya Mantri Krishi Yojana
3. Farmer income scheme
4. Mukhya Mantri Vriksha Sampada Yojana
   Correct Answer: 4. Mukhya Mantri Vriksha Sampada Yojana
   Explanation: This scheme was launched to promote afforestation in Chhattisgarh.

Q8. Harisena, author of Prayag Prashasti, was the court poet of which Gupta emperor?

Options:

1. Kumaragupta I
2. Skandagupta
3. Samudragupta
4. Ramagupta
   Correct Answer: 3. Samudragupta
   Explanation: Harisena composed the Prayag Prashasti for Samudragupta.

Q9. Ricky Kej won the 57th Grammy for which album?

Options:

1. Winds of Samsara
2. Mountain Dreams
3. Mystic Mountains
4. Divine Tides
   Correct Answer: 1. Winds of Samsara
   Explanation: Ricky Kej won the Grammy in 2015 for ‘Winds of Samsara’.

Q10. What percentage of sunlight falling on sea ice is reflected back into space?

Options:

1. 80%
2. 85%
3. 75%
4. 70%
   Correct Answer: 1. 80%
   Explanation: Sea ice reflects about 80% of sunlight, aiding climate regulation.

Q11. Which Delhi Sultanate dynasty founded Agra city?

Options:

1. Khalji dynasty
2. Sayyid dynasty
3. Tughluq dynasty
4. Lodi dynasty
   Correct Answer: 4. Lodi dynasty
   Explanation: Sikandar Lodi founded Agra in the early 16th century.

Q12. Anantha R Krishnan is associated with which musical instrument?

Options:

1. Drums
2. Mridangam
3. Tabla
4. Violin
   Correct Answer: 2. Mridangam
   Explanation: Anantha R Krishnan is a renowned mridangam player.

Q13. __ is a state of deprivation reflecting inability to satisfy basic needs.

Options:

1. Poverty
2. Bondage
3. Illiteracy
4. Ignorance
   Correct Answer: 1. Poverty
   Explanation: Poverty is the lack of resources to meet basic needs.

Q14. According to Carbon Brief Review 2019, India is the __ largest emitter of greenhouse gases.

Options:

1. Fifth
2. Ninth
3. Seventh
4. Third
   Correct Answer: 4. Third
   Explanation: India ranks third globally in GHG emissions.

Q15. Which bacteria convert milk to curd?

Options:

1. Lactic acid bacteria
2. Salmonella typhi
3. Salmonella lactae
4. E. curdae
   Correct Answer: 1. Lactic acid bacteria
   Explanation: Lactic acid bacteria ferment milk into curd.

Q16. Which is NOT correct for a Governor’s appointment?

Options:

1. Citizen of India
2. At least 35 years
3. Cannot hold office of profit
4. Appointed for six years
   Correct Answer: 4. Appointed for six years
   Explanation: Governors are appointed for five years, not six.

Q17. Where in the Indus Valley Civilization was a dockyard identified?

Options:

1. Mohenjodaro
2. Lothal
3. Rakhigarhi
4. Dholavira
   Correct Answer: 2. Lothal
   Explanation: Lothal had a brick structure identified as a dockyard.

Q18. Which Act abolished the East India Company’s monopoly of trade with China?

Options:

1. Charter Act of 1853
2. Charter Act of 1793
3. Government of India Act 1858
4. Charter Act of 1833
   Correct Answer: 4. Charter Act of 1833
   Explanation: The 1833 Act ended the company’s trade monopoly.

Q19. Which Indian award was established in 1982 for environment and ecology?

Options:

1. Sanjay Gandhi Award
2. B P Pal Award
3. Indira Gandhi Paryavaran Puraskar
4. Pitambar Pant Award
   Correct Answer: 1. Sanjay Gandhi Award
   Explanation: Established in 1982, it promotes environmental efforts.

Q20. Who was appointed NHAI Chairman in December 2022?

Options:

1. Gajender Sharma
2. Anshul Mishra
3. Dinesh Menon
4. Santosh Kumar Yadav
   Correct Answer: 4. Santosh Kumar Yadav
   Explanation: Santosh Kumar Yadav was appointed NHAI Chairman.

Q21. A bill proposed by a non-minister is called:

Options:

1. Government Bill
2. Money Bill
3. Private Member’s Bill
4. Non-Money Bill
   Correct Answer: 3. Private Member’s Bill
   Explanation: Non-ministers propose Private Member’s Bills.

Q22. Which is the world’s largest PV Solar Park in India?

Options:

1. Harshad Solar Park
2. Pavagada Solar Park
3. Bhadla Solar Park
4. Dholera Solar Park
   Correct Answer: 3. Bhadla Solar Park
   Explanation: Located in Rajasthan, it is the largest solar park.

Q23. Which Act gave the Governor General power to legislate for British territories in India?

Options:

1. Charter Act of 1853
2. Charter Act of 1793
3. Charter Act of 1833
4. Charter Act of 1813
   Correct Answer: 3. Charter Act of 1833
   Explanation: The 1833 Act centralized legislative power.

Q24. On whose advice does the Governor appoint ministers?

Options:

1. Chief Minister
2. President
3. Vice-President
4. Prime Minister
   Correct Answer: 1. Chief Minister
   Explanation: The Governor acts on the Chief Minister’s advice.

Q25. National Youth Day in India is celebrated on:

Options:

1. 26 November
2. 26 January
3. 14 April
4. 12 January
   Correct Answer: 4. 12 January
   Explanation: Celebrated on Swami Vivekananda’s birthday, January 12.

Quantitative Aptitude Section

Q1. A bus covers 1200 km in 30 hours. What is its average speed in m/s?

Options:

1. 12 1/3
2. 13 1/9
3. 12 1/9
4. 11 1/9
   Correct Answer: 4. 11 1/9
   Explanation:

• Speed = Distance ÷ Time = 1200 km ÷ 30 h = 40 km/h.
• Convert to m/s: 40 × (1000/3600) = 40 × (5/18) = 200/18 = 100/9 = 11 1/9 m/s.

Q2. If a circle’s circumference increases by 7%, by what percentage does its area increase?

Options:

1. 14.49%
2. 12.20%
3. 18.69%
4. 10.28%
   Correct Answer: 1. 14.49%
   Explanation:

• Circumference C = 2πr. If C increases by 7%, new C = 1.07C, so new r = 1.07r.
• Area A = πr². New area = π(1.07r)² = 1.1449πr².
• Increase in area = 1.1449 – 1 = 0.1449 = 14.49%.

Q3. In an election, the first candidate gets 75% of valid votes. If 20% of 2,48,000 votes are invalid, how many votes did the other candidate get?

Options:

1. 56,600
2. 53,800
3. 49,600
4. 46,800
   Correct Answer: 3. 49,600
   Explanation:

• Total votes = 2,48,000.
• Invalid votes = 20% = 0.2 × 2,48,000 = 49,600.
• Valid votes = 2,48,000 – 49,600 = 1,98,400.
• First candidate = 75% of 1,98,400 = 0.75 × 1,98,400 = 1,48,800.
• Second candidate = 1,98,400 – 1,48,800 = 49,600.

Q10. The radii of two concentric circles are 27 cm and 18 cm. The area of the closed figure bounded by their boundaries is:

Options:

1. 405π cm²
2. 505π cm²
3. 288π cm²
4. 504π cm²
   Correct Answer: 1. 405π cm²
   Explanation:

• Area of larger circle = π(27)² = 729π cm².
• Area of smaller circle = π(18)² = 324π cm².
• Area between circles = 729π – 324π = 405π cm².

Q11. A grinder’s marked price is ₹3,000 with successive discounts of 20% and 15%. What is the selling price?

Options:

1. ₹2,000
2. ₹2,040
3. ₹2,100
4. ₹2,200
   Correct Answer: 2. ₹2,040
   Explanation:

• After 20% discount: 0.8 × 3,000 = ₹2,400.
• After 15% discount on ₹2,400: 0.85 × 2,400 = ₹2,040.

English Language Section (Comprehension)

Passage: Seeking to move towards a cashless economy, the government has proposed income tax benefits for people making payments through credit or debit cards, besides doing away with transaction charges on the purchase of petrol, gas, and rail tickets with plastic money. India is a hugely cash-dependent economy. The RBI and commercial banks annually spend around ₹21,000 crore in currency operations costs, while Delhi citizens alone spend ₹9.1 crore and 60 lakh hours collecting cash. The cash-to-GDP ratio in India is 12%, almost four times that of Brazil (3.93%), Mexico (5.93%), and South Africa (5.93%).

Note: No specific comprehension questions were provided in the document, but the passage is included for context.

Why Study SSC Selection Post Higher Secondary Level Previous Year Exam Paper?

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